3/20 is 15% so that's bigger
Answer:
5. f(x) = 10,000 (1.5)^x
Step-by-step explanation:
We would have to multiply the original amount by 1.50^x because the initial amount would be 1, and 50% increase would be .5 so 1.5 and you raise it to the number of years to show the total increase.
Let's test it.
Initial:
10,000
After 1 year
10,000 + (.5*10000)
10,000 + 5000 = 15,000
After 2 years
15,000 + (.5*15000)
15,000 + 7500 = 22,500
Let's try our equation.
f(x) = 10,000 (1.5)^x
x = 2
10,000(1.5)^2
10,000(2.25) = 22,500
The same!
Answer:
So interval notation is with ( and [ where ( is exclusive and [ is inclusive.
Like (1,2) is between 1 and 2 exclusive. [1,2] is between 1 and 2 inclusive. (1,2] is between 1 and 2, 1 exclusive 2 inclusive.
at the point (6,0) you see that the graph goes from above 0 to below 0 (from positive to negative)
The values are positive when x is less than 6 and negative when x is greater than 6.
so the positive interval is
(-infinity, 6)
and with inifinity you always use exclusive
It's that because everything from all the way to the left (-infinity) to 6, is above the x-axis, which means it's positive
using this logic can you do the negative interval?
Answer:
40% I think
Step-by-step explanation:
if it was on 20% and it's only gone up 20% it would now be at 40% but it still only has gone up 20%
