Answer and Explanation:
In the given case, the second will would be destroyed non-intentionally by the testatrix that represent the person who writes the will. Also the second will would have be intended to revoke the first will
In addition to this, Testatrix intends the second will to be value also at the same time she dont want the first will to be probated
So the second will would be upheld because of testamentary motive.
Answer:
The <em>covenant of good faith and fair dealing</em> simply requires all the parties to a contract to deal in an even-handed manner such that one party's action does not frustrate the other or prevent the other from getting the benefits of that contract.
In insurance, this covenant is sometimes captured under the heading <em>Uberrima fides</em>. This is a Latin phrase meaning <em>"Utmost Good Faith".</em>
In insurance, this covenant is legally binding on all parties to ensure they each reveal every information that is material to the acceptance or rejection of the risk (on the part of the Insurer) whilst on the part of the Insured the insurer is required to be explicit regarding the terms of the policy as well as the calculations by which the premium is arrived at.
For example, if an Insurance company is looking at covering someone under it's Life Insurance Policy, the person taking out the contract must disclose whether or not the Insured has any latent health issues which might shorten their lifespan. If there is such a condition, the Insurance company may still take on the risk albeit at a relatively higher rate than a client without such medical conditions.
An Insurance Company may breach this covenant if they delay or refuse to reasonable settle claims due to the Insured. It may also arise if the Insurance company by some technical manipulation intentionally under settles an Insurance claim.
If for instance, a Comprehensive Insurance Policy files a valid claim, the Insurer may be liable for negligence and or intentional wrongdoing.
Cheers!
Answer:
A: $1,475,000
Explanation:
The computation of the overhead applied is shown below:
But before that first determine the predetermined overhead rate which is
= Estimated annual overhead cost ÷ Estimated machine hours
= $1,500,000 ÷ 300,000
= $5
Now the applied overhead is
= Predetermined overhead rate × Actual machine hours
= $5 × 295,000
= $1,475,000
Answer:
VC% = 73.5%
The New variable cost percentage of sales = 73.5%
Explanation:
Given;
New Fixed cost = $5.3 million
Total cost = $20 million
Total variable cost = $20 - $5.3 = $14.7 million
Variable cost percent=(total variable cost/total cost)×100%
VC% = (14.7/20) × 100%
VC% = 73.5%
