Answer: The predetermined overhead rate increased because the total direct labor-hours dropped
Explanation:
The predetermined overhead rate refers to an allocation rate which is used in applying the estimated manufacturing overhead cost to the cost objects for a particular reporting period.
When there's reduction in the direct labor-hour requirement from 5 hours to 2 hours, the predetermined overhead rate increased because the total direct labor-hours dropped
The predetermined overhead rate is calculated as the total overhead cost divided by the machine hour. Therefore, if there's reduction in the direct labor hour rate, then there will be a rise in the predetermined overhead rate.
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Answer:
January 1, 2020
Bonds Payable 1600000 Dr
Loss on Redemption of bonds 36800 Cr
Discount on Bonds Payable 4800 Cr
Cash 1632000 Cr
Explanation:
The redemption of bonds before the maturity usually requires a payment for redemption which is a certain percentage of its face value. It is usually higher than the face value. The above bonds are redeemed at 102 which means at 102% of the face value of the bonds. Thus, the cash paid to redeem the bonds is,
Cash = 1600000 * 102% = 1632000
The bonds have a carrying value, which is the face value less discount or add premium, of,
Carrying value = 1600000 - 4800 = $1595200
If they are redeemed for an amount in excess of the carrying value, they are redeemed at a loss.
The loss on redemption is,
Loss = 1595200 - 1632000 = $36800
The assumption in perfect competition that there is an easy entry and exit from the market implies that firms will make a zero economic profit in the long run.
<h3>Why do firms make a zero economic profit?</h3>
In a pure competition, companies are allowed to freely enter and leave.
They take advantage of this to enter a market when prices are high and economic profit is being made.
As more firms enter, the economic profit keeps decreasing as prices decrease until this profit gets to zero and then turns to economic losses.
At this point, some firms will leave the market to stop making losses. When they do, the supply will decrease which leads to prices rising once more.
The cycle will then repeat itself and keep the companies at a zero economic profit in the long run.
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Answer:
(a). A worker at a Sony plant in Japan buys some Georgia peaches from an American farmer.
-<u> Increase in exports while no change in imports</u>.
(b). The Sony pension fund buys a bond from the U.S. Treasury.
- <u>Decrease in a net outflow of capital. Thus, it would be considered as a negative inflow/outflow</u>.
(c). An American investor buys a controlling share in a South Korean electronics firm.
- <u>Increase in Net Capital outflow for the U.S</u>.
Explanation:
Exports are described as the selling of domestic goods to a foreign country while Imports are characterized as the process of bringing in foreign goods to the domestic country. And Capital outflow is defined as the exact flow of funds from domestic to foreign and foreign to the domestic country.
In the first case, the purchase reflects a rise in exports as the domestic product is sold to the foreign country. In the second situation, the net outflow of the capital would decreases as it demonstrates a foreign purchase of a domestic asset. In the third example, the American investors' purchase of a South Korean firm demonstrates a domestic purchase of a foreign asset and thus, the net capital outflow would rise.
