Answer:
C) 8.15 percent
Explanation:
The computation of the abnormal return for the two week period is as follows:
Abnormal return is
= (1 + first week abnormal return) × (1 + second week abnormal return) - 1
= (1 + 5%) × (1 + 3%) - 1
= 1.0815% - 1
= 8.15%
Hence, the correct option is c.
We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come
And, the same is to be considered
Answer:
Ans. Current Share Price=$33.85
Explanation:
Hi, we first have to establish the dividend for the first 3 years and the dividend when the growth rate falls off to a constant rate of 8% with the formula to find the present value of a perpetuity with constant growth rate. From there, we need to bring all the above cash flows to present value and that is the price of the share. The formula is as follows.

To find D1, D2,and D3, we have to do this.
D1=Do(1+0.19)
D2=D1(1+0.19)
D3=D2(1+0.19)
Since 0.19 is the growth rate for 3 years. Everything should look like this

notice that the sign of the last part do not coincide with the formula, that is because the growth rate from the first 3 years is -8%.
Best of luck.
Having a solid structure or surface. Does this help?
The market supply curve represents the sum of the quantities supplied by all the sellers at each price of the good.
<h3>What is the market supply curve?</h3>
The market supply curve is the sum of the individual supply curves of firms. The individual supply curves are added horizontally. The supply curve sloped upward. This shows that there is a positive relationship between price and quantity supplied.
To learn more about supply curves, please check: brainly.com/question/26073189
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