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iVinArrow [24]
3 years ago
7

Last week, a GameStop store sold some $43 games and some $30 games for a total of $485. What was the total number of games sold?

Mathematics
2 answers:
s2008m [1.1K]3 years ago
6 0

558 is the number of games sold

shutvik [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

this does not make sense because it does not tell us the average of one game

Step-by-step explanation:

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PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE!!!! I NEED HELP
BartSMP [9]

Answer:

<h2><u>(9, 76)</u></h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 7x + 13

y = 3x + 49

================

We can solve this in either of two ways:  Mathematically and graphically.

<h2><u>Math</u></h2>

Set the equations equal to each other (after all, y does equal y).

7x + 13 = 3x + 49

4x = 36

x = 9

Then use x = 9 to solve for y:

y = 7x + 13

y = 7(9) + 13

x = 76

<h2><u>Graph</u></h2>

Plot the two equations.  I use Desmos - its online and free.  The intersection of the two lines reveals to answer:  (9,76).  See the attachment.

3 0
2 years ago
What is the probability of these events when we randomly select a permutation of {1,2, ..., n} where n≥4? a) 1 precedes 2 c) 1 i
Paraphin [41]

Answer:

a) 1/2

b) 1/n

c) 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

a) For each permutation, either 1 precedes 2 or 2 precedes 1. For each permutation in which 1 precedes 2, we can swap 1 and 2 to obtain a permutation in which 2 preceds 1. Thus, half of the total permutations will involve in 1 preceding 2, hence, the probability for a permutation having 1 before 2 is 1/2.

c) If 2 is at the start of the permutation, then it is impossible for 1 to be before 2. If that is not the case, then 1 has a probability of 1/n-1 to be exactly in the position before 2. We can divide in 2 cases using the theorem of total probability,

P( 1 immediately preceds 2) = P (1 immediately precedes 2 | 2 is at position 1) * P(2 is at position 1) + P(1 immediately precedes 2 | 2 is not at position 1) * P(2 is not at position 1) = 0 * 1/n + (1/n-1)*(n-1/n) = 1/n.

d) We can divide the total of permutations in 4 different groups with equal cardinality:

  • Those in which n precedes 1 and n-1 precedes 2
  • those in which n precedes 1 and 2 precedes n-1
  • those in which 1 precedes n and n-1 precedes 2
  • those in which 1 precedes n and 2 precedes n-1

All this groups have equal cardinality because we can obtain any element from one group from another by making a permutations between 1 and n and/or 2 and n-1.

This means that the total amount of favourable cases (elements of the first group) are a quarter of the total, hence, the probability of the event is 1/4.

3 0
3 years ago
What is 120 times 1 over 100
Bogdan [553]
120 x 1/100 = 120/100
120/100 = 12/10 = 6/5
The answer is 6/5
4 0
3 years ago
Ples help me i woud be aprishated
worty [1.4K]

Answer:

Number 2 is  A

Step-by-step explanation:

5 is 380% because 405-22 is 383 if you round that it is 380%

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A bottom of a 6 foot deep circular pool has an area of 452.4 ft. If the pool is only
inna [77]

Answer:

450.4

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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