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kherson [118]
4 years ago
8

If mollie can travel 250 miles in 90 minutes how far can she travel in 6 hours?

Mathematics
1 answer:
lozanna [386]4 years ago
7 0
She can travel 3000 miles
You might be interested in
FEE
frozen [14]

Answer:

The equations represent the line that is parallel to 3x - 4y = 7 and pass through the point (-4,-2) are:

  • y+2=\frac{3}{4}\left(x+4\right)
  • 3x - 4y = -4

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope-intercept form of the line equation

y = mx+b

where

  • m is the slope
  • b is the y-intercept

Given the line

3x - 4y = 7

writing in the slope-intercept form

4y = 3x - 7

dividing both sides by 4

4y/4 = 3/4x - 7/4

y = 3/4x - 7/4

Now, comparing with the slope-intercept form of the line equation

y = 3/4x - 7/4

The slope of the line m = 3/4

We know that parallel lines have the same slopes.

Therefore, the slope of the parallel line is: 3/4

now we have,

The point (-4, -2)

The slope m of parallel line = 3/4

Given the point-slope form of the line equation

y-y_1=m\left(x-x_1\right)

where m is the slope of the line and (x₁, y₁) is the point

substituting (-4, -2) and m = 3/4 in the point-slope form of line equation

\:y-\left(-2\right)=\frac{3}{4}\left(x-\left(-4\right)\right)

y+2=\frac{3}{4}\left(x+4\right)

Thus, the equation in the point-slope form of the line equation is:

y+2=\frac{3}{4}\left(x+4\right)

Simplifying the equation

y+2=\frac{3}{4}\left(x+4\right)

Subtract 3 from both sides

y+2-2=\frac{3}{4}\left(x+4\right)-2

y=\frac{3}{4}x+1

Multiplying the equation by 4

4y = 3x + 4

3x - 4y = -4

Therefore, the equations represent the line that is parallel to 3x - 4y = 7 and pass through the point (-4,-2) are:

  • y+2=\frac{3}{4}\left(x+4\right)
  • 3x - 4y = -4
7 0
3 years ago
What is the developed form of 2(3x-10)
vovikov84 [41]
The first step to finding the developed form is to multiply each term in the parenthesis by 2
2 × 3x - 2 × 10
now,, youll need to calculate the product of the first multiplication set
6x - 2 × 10
finally,, multiply the last set of numbers
6x - 20
this means that the correct answer to your question is 6x - 20.
let me know if you have any further questions
:)
6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Let $$X_1, X_2, ...X_n$$ be uniformly distributed on the interval 0 to a. Recall that the maximum likelihood estimator of a is $
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

a) \hat a = max(X_i)  

For this case the value for \hat a is always smaller than the value of a, assuming X_i \sim Unif[0,a] So then for this case it cannot be unbiased because an unbiased estimator satisfy this property:

E(a) - a= 0 and that's not our case.

b) E(\hat a) - a= \frac{na}{n+1} - a = \frac{na -an -a}{n+1}= \frac{-a}{n+1}

Since is a negative value we can conclude that underestimate the real value a.

\lim_{ n \to\infty} -\frac{1}{n+1}= 0

c) P(Y \leq y) = P(max(X_i) \leq y) = P(X_1 \leq y, X_2 \leq y, ..., X_n\leq y)

And assuming independence we have this:

P(Y \leq y) = P(X_1 \leq y) P(X_2 \leq y) .... P(X_n \leq y) = [P(X_1 \leq y)]^n = (\frac{y}{a})^n

f_Y (Y) = n (\frac{y}{a})^{n-1} * \frac{1}{a}= \frac{n}{a^n} y^{n-1} , y \in [0,a]

e) On this case we see that the estimator \hat a_1 is better than \hat a_2 and the reason why is because:

V(\hat a_1) > V(\hat a_2)

\frac{a^2}{3n}> \frac{a^2}{n(n+2)}

n(n+2) = n^2 + 2n > n +2n = 3n and that's satisfied for n>1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Part a

For this case we are assuming X_1, X_2 , ..., X_n \sim U(0,a)

And we are are ssuming the following estimator:

\hat a = max(X_i)  

For this case the value for \hat a is always smaller than the value of a, assuming X_i \sim Unif[0,a] So then for this case it cannot be unbiased because an unbiased estimator satisfy this property:

E(a) - a= 0 and that's not our case.

Part b

For this case we assume that the estimator is given by:

E(\hat a) = \frac{na}{n+1}

And using the definition of bias we have this:

E(\hat a) - a= \frac{na}{n+1} - a = \frac{na -an -a}{n+1}= \frac{-a}{n+1}

Since is a negative value we can conclude that underestimate the real value a.

And when we take the limit when n tend to infinity we got that the bias tend to 0.

\lim_{ n \to\infty} -\frac{1}{n+1}= 0

Part c

For this case we the followng random variable Y = max (X_i) and we can find the cumulative distribution function like this:

P(Y \leq y) = P(max(X_i) \leq y) = P(X_1 \leq y, X_2 \leq y, ..., X_n\leq y)

And assuming independence we have this:

P(Y \leq y) = P(X_1 \leq y) P(X_2 \leq y) .... P(X_n \leq y) = [P(X_1 \leq y)]^n = (\frac{y}{a})^n

Since all the random variables have the same distribution.  

Now we can find the density function derivating the distribution function like this:

f_Y (Y) = n (\frac{y}{a})^{n-1} * \frac{1}{a}= \frac{n}{a^n} y^{n-1} , y \in [0,a]

Now we can find the expected value for the random variable Y and we got this:

E(Y) = \int_{0}^a \frac{n}{a^n} y^n dy = \frac{n}{a^n} \frac{a^{n+1}}{n+1}= \frac{an}{n+1}

And the bias is given by:

E(Y)-a=\frac{an}{n+1} -a=\frac{an-an-a}{n+1}= -\frac{a}{n+1}

And again since the bias is not 0 we have a biased estimator.

Part e

For this case we have two estimators with the following variances:

V(\hat a_1) = \frac{a^2}{3n}

V(\hat a_2) = \frac{a^2}{n(n+2)}

On this case we see that the estimator \hat a_1 is better than \hat a_2 and the reason why is because:

V(\hat a_1) > V(\hat a_2)

\frac{a^2}{3n}> \frac{a^2}{n(n+2)}

n(n+2) = n^2 + 2n > n +2n = 3n and that's satisfied for n>1.

8 0
4 years ago
Jason gets very nervous giving speeches in front of big crowds how can he combat his nervousness
gregori [183]

Answer: Jason can imagine everyone naked while on the stage, it will make him smile, and feel free.

Step-by-step explanation: I'ts pretty easy actually.

3 0
3 years ago
How to attach image <br><br> sure sure
Bogdan [553]

Answer:

Press the kinda paper clip thing it says attach file then press that

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
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