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4 years ago

Which is bigger 200 mm or 1m

Mathematics

2 answers:

Murljashka [212]4 years ago

7 0

For which is bigger the answer is 200 mm than 1 mm im not sure

UNO [17]4 years ago

4 0

! meter is greater than 200 milimeters

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Solve the systme of equations using elimination X+Y=2 X-Y=4

kirza4 [7]

Answer:

x=3

y=-1

Step-by-step explanation:

x=4+y

by substitution it in equation 1

weget

(4+y)+y=2

4+2y=2

y=-1

x=3

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3 years ago

7.325 divided by 1.465

ki77a [65]

The correct answer for 7.325 divided by 1.465 is 5

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4 years ago

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Amiraneli [1.4K]

You need to multiply three on both sides, add 6x to both sides, then divide by 4 on both sides. In the end, you will get y=3/2x+21/2.

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4 years ago

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Rama09 [41]

Answer:

Try downloading an app called math

Step-by-step explanation:

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4 years ago

You are running a race. The probability that you win is 3/5. What is the probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races

Veronika [31]

Answer:

The probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races is 0.54432.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that you are running a race. The probability that you win is 3/5.

There are total of 6 races.

The above situation can be represented through binomial distribution;

$P(X = r) = \binom{n}{r} \times p^{r} \times (1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,.....$

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 6 races

r = number of success = at most 2 lost

p = probability of success which in our question is probability that

you lose a race = 1 - (3/5) = 2/5 or 0.4

Let X = Number of races lost

So, X ~ Binom(n = 6, p = 0.40)

Now, the probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races is given by = P(X $\leq$ 2)

P(X $\leq$ 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

= $\binom{6}{0} \times 0.40^{0} \times (1-0.40)^{6-0} + \binom{6}{1} \times 0.40^{1} \times (1-0.40)^{6-1} + \binom{6}{2} \times 0.40^{2} \times (1-0.40)^{6-2}$

= $1 \times1 \times 0.60^{6} + 6 \times 0.40^{1} \times 0.60^{5} +15\times 0.40^{2} \times 0.60^{4}$

= 0.54432

7 0

3 years ago