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Ivahew [28]
3 years ago
8

NewLinePhone Corp. is very risky, with a beta equal to 2.8 and a standard deviation of returns of 32%. The risk-free rate of ret

urn is 3% and the return on the market is 11%. NewLinePhone's marginal tax rate is 35%. Use the capital asset pricing model to estimate NewLinePhone's cost of retained earnings. 19.7% 23.9% 22.1% 25.4%
Business
1 answer:
PtichkaEL [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Risk-free rate (Rf) = 3%

Market return (Rm) = 11%

Beta (β) = 2.8

Ke = Rf +β(Rm - Rf)

Ke = 3 + 2.8(11 - 3)

Ke = 3 + 2.8(8)

Ke = 3 +  22.4

Ke = 25.4%

Explanation:

Cost of retained earnings is a function of risk-free rate plus beta multiplied by risk-premium. Risk premium is the difference between market return and risk-free rate,

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Havermill Co. establishes a $250 petty cash fund on September 1. On September 30, the fund is replenished. The accumulated recei
masha68 [24]

Answer:

Debit Petty Cash $250; credit Cash $250

Explanation:

Based on the information given we were told that the Company establishes the amount of $250 as a petty cash fund on September 1 which means that The journal entry to record the establishment of the fund on September 1 is:

Debit Petty Cash $250

Credit Cash $250

5 0
2 years ago
Which of the following is not an example of income? wages food tips allowance.
kondaur [170]

Food because income is money you take in.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Using Taylor's rule, when the equilibrium real federal funds rate is 2 percent, there is no output gap, the actual inflation rat
SCORPION-xisa [38]

Answer:

B) 1%

Explanation:

Taylor's rule formula is as follow:

Target rate = Neutral rate + 0.5 x (Expected GDP growth rate - Long-term GDP growth rate) + 0.5 x (Expected Inflation rate - Target inflation rate)

--> Target rate = 2% + 0.5 x (0) + 0.5 x (0 - 2%)

  --> Target rate = 2% - 1% = 1%

Nominal federal funds rate should be 1%

7 0
3 years ago
The 2012 financial statements of Marker Co. contain the following selected data (in millions).
Anna11 [10]

Answer:

a.67.9%.

Explanation:

Debt to Total Assets Ratio = Total Liabilities / Total Assets x 100

<em>Total Liabilities = $95,000,000 </em>

<em>Total Assets = $140,000,000 </em>

Debt to Total Assets Ratio = $95,000,000 / $140,000,000 x 100

Debt to Total Assets Ratio = 0.679 x 100

or

Debt to Total Assets Ratio = 67.9%

Hence, The Assets of Marker Co. are 67.9% funded by creditors.

5 0
3 years ago
The price of diamonds is high, in part because the majority of the world’s diamonds are controlled by a single firm. This is an
kirill115 [55]

Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

This is a case of monopoly market condition where there is a single firm operating the whole market. The price of the products is set by the single firm and the buyers in this market are price taker. The monopolist can earn normal profit, losses and abnormal profit in the short run and can earn normal profit and abnormal profit in the long run.

In our case, the price of diamonds is high because there is only single firm in the whole market and there is no other competitors in the market. That's why they are charging the higher prices.

5 0
3 years ago
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