Geochemist is the answer your looking for
Answer:
The long term capital gain= $30000-$25000
The long term capital gain= $5000
The basis in stock will be zero after the distribution.
Explanation:
Step 1 of 3
Tax treatment of amount distributed to shareholders:
The amount received as distribution to a shareholder under S Corporation is equal to the cash and fair market value of property distributed. The distribution is considered as tax-free to the limit that it does not exceed shareholder’s basis in the company’s stock. Any amount received in excess of basis will be treated as capital gain.
Step 2 of 3
However, taxation depends whether S Corporation has ever been a C Company or it posses’ accumulated earnings and profits. If it was never a C Corporation or doesn’t holds AEP then distribution equals to basis of share in S Corporation is a tax free gain for shareholder. Gain over and above basis is taxed as capital gains.
Step 3 of 3
In the given problem, C is a shareholder in S Corporation. He receives $30,000 as cash distribution. His basis in stock is $25,000. The distribution up to basis of stock is tax free distribution and above that is charged to capital gains. It is as follows-
Thus, capital gain of is taxable in hands of C. His basis in S Corporation will reduced to zero as entire distribution is over and above basis of his stock.
Answer:
The most suitable answer is Stocks may help you protect your money from inflation while bonds may be more susceptible to losing their value over time due to inflation.
Explanation:
Now remember, this is not "guaranteed" as stocks come with higher risks comparing to bonds, yet in US share market, stocks have performed well than the bonds overall. This is because stock prices fluctuate and if the company invested in is performing well, the share prices can sky rocket over a long period while in bonds you don't see this often as they are issued for a specific time and represents the debt capital.
Answer:
Total Revenues would increase because Demand is Inelastic
Explanation:
Demand is buyers ability & willingness to buy at a given price, time.
Elasticity of Demand is quantity demanded responsiveness to price change.
More Elastic Demand means quantity demanded responds highly to change in price. Percentage Change in Quantity Demanded > Percentage Change in Price. Elasticity of Demand [Δ%Q / Δ%P] >1 in this case. Price and Total Revenue (PxQ) are inversely related in this case ; i.e - price rise, TR fall & price fall, TR rise.
Less Elastic Demand means quantity demanded responds less to change in price. Percentage Change in Quantity Demanded < Percentage Change in Price. Elasticity of Demand [Δ%Q / Δ%P] < 1 in this case. Price and Total Revenue (PxQ) are positively related in this case ; i.e - price rise, TR rise & price fall, TR fall.
So: If Sam's Pint price change by 20% leads to demand fall by 4%, the demand is less elastic i.e < 1. Hence, Total Revenue will increase with increase in price.
Answer:
Net present value at 8%=($42510)
Explanation:
Explanation- Net present value = Present value of cash inflows – Total outflows
={(19000*6.7100) - $170000}
=$127490- $170000
= ($42510)
Annual net cash inflows = Net income+ Depreciation
= $4000+$15000
= $19000
Straight line Method:-
= Cost of asset- Salvage value of asset/No. of useful life (years)
=($170000-$20000)/10 years
=$150000/10 years = $15000
Net present value at 3%=($7926)
Explanation- Net present value = Present value of cash inflows – Total outflows
={(19000*8.5302) - $170000}
=$162074- $170000
= ($7926)
Annual net cash inflows = Net income+ Depreciation
= $4000+$15000
= $19000
Straight line Method:-
= Cost of asset- Salvage value of asset/No. of useful life (years)
=($170000-$20000)/10 years
=$150000/10 years = $15000
