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Novosadov [1.4K]
3 years ago
9

Groups perform better than individuals on a wide range of demonstrable tasks. what is a key reason why groups outperform individ

uals faced with the same task? select one:
a. groups are much more overconfident than individuals, regardless of their actual accuracy.
b. groups are more likely to exacerbate some of the shortcomings displayed by individuals.
c. groups outperform individuals due to a process in which group members become more accurate during the group interaction.
d. groups are more likely to neglect case-specific information and ignore base-rate information.
Business
1 answer:
Alekssandra [29.7K]3 years ago
7 0
<span>The key reason why groups outperform individuals faced with the same task is the following: g</span>roups outperform individuals due to a process in which group members become more accurate during the group interaction.
Correct answer:C
Cooperation, more ideas, brainstorming are reasons that lead to success, and they are all group activities.
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Jessica works for ABC Shoes. At​ ABC, Jessica is responsible for establishing​ structure, strategic​ goals, and guiding her empl
vesna_86 [32]

Answer: Top Manager

Explanation:

Top manager are managers at or near the upper levels of the organization structure who have the responsible for making organization wide decisions and establishing the plans and goals that affect the entire organization.

Top managers typically have titles such as executive vice president, president, managing director, chief operating officer, or chief executive officer.

3 0
3 years ago
Which is an example of someone who is cyclically unemployed?
Korolek [52]

Answer:

<em>A. autoworker who is temporarily laid off from an automobile company because of a decline in sales. </em>

Explanation:

Cyclical unemployment is <em>unemployment that occurs when full employment can not be met by the aggregate demand for goods and services in an economy.</em>

This takes place during times of decreased economic growth or times of economic slowdown.

Cyclical unemployment is directly linked to the degree of macroeconomic behavior, which is the combined or collective activity of all economically involved individuals and entities.

Instead of linear, this overall trend is cyclical-economic activity tends to increase and fall rather than always rising or falling.

7 0
3 years ago
Crossfade Corp. has a bond with a par value of $2,000 that sells for $1,902.14. The bond has a coupon rate of 6.48 percent and m
Virty [35]

Answer:

yield to maturity = 7.06%

Explanation:

yield to maturity (YTM) is calculated using the following formula:

YTM = {C + [(FV - PV) / n]} / [(FV + PV) / 2]

  • FV = $2,000
  • PV = $1,902.14
  • C = $2,000 x 6.48% x 1/2 = $64.80
  • n = 12 x 2 = 24

YTM = {64.80 + [(2,000 - 1,902.14) / 24]} / [(2,000 + 1,902.14) / 2] = (64.80 + 4.0775) / 1,951.07 = 0.0353 or 3.53% semianually or 7.06% annually

Since the bond sells at a discount, its yield to maturity will be higher than the coupon rate.

8 0
3 years ago
The Alpha Beta Corporation disposes a capital asset with an original cost of​ $170,000 and accumulated depreciation of​ $109,000
Bingel [31]

Answer:

Option D) $54.400

Explanation:

When  a company disposes a capital asset, the cost of the asset it's the remanent value, that is the difference between the original cost less the accumulated depreciation, in this case $170.000 minus $109.000, remanent value is $61.000.

This value it's the cost of sale and the price it's $50.000 , the result of this transaction it's a loss of ($11.000) so the after-tax cash inflow it's ($4.400).

The total Cash Inflow it's the sum of $50.000 (gained from the sale) and the save on taxes for $4.400, because of the loss I get a payback on taxes, the total is $54.400.

8 0
4 years ago
Keys Printing plans to issue a $1,000 par value, 20-year noncallable bond with a 7.00% annual coupon, paid semiannually. The com
Tresset [83]

Answer:

The WACC change if the new tax rate was adopted is - 0.35%

Explanation:

For computing the WACC change, first we have to determine the after tax cost of debt by applying the 40% and 45% tax rate which is shown below:

After tax Cost of debt = Cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate)

For 40% tax rate, it would be

= 7% × ( 1 - 40%)

= 4.2%

For 45% tax rate, it would be

= 7% × ( 1 - 45%)

= 3.85%

The change in WACC would be

= 3.85% - 4.2%

= - 0.35%

7 0
3 years ago
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