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irinina [24]
4 years ago
15

What is 1/8 in percentage? (Percentage is out of 100)​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Marizza181 [45]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I think this answer is 12.5

Sauron [17]4 years ago
5 0

Answer: 1/8 as a percentage is 12.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

The fraction read 1 divided by 8. So, 1÷8=0.125. Then move the decimal over two places to the right and you get 12.5%.

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a marble is drawn from a jar containing red, blue, and white marbles. p (red) 0.40 and p (blue) 0.25. what is p (white)
torisob [31]
25.35. Here's what you do, if those numbers are multiplied by a 100, they'd be40% red, and 25% blue. So the white is the rest. So you add 25%+40%=100%; 
Answer: 35%. Divide by 100, .35. Boom! you got your answer;)
3 0
3 years ago
Holly works ina garage <br> Mr Bhakti brings his car
swat32

Answer:

298.788

Step-by-step explanation:

110+49.99+89 = 248.99

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= 298.788

6 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=n%20%2B%207%20%3D%208" id="TexFormula1" title="n + 7 = 8" alt="n + 7 = 8" align="absmiddle" cl
den301095 [7]

<em><u>n+7=8</u></em>

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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE ANSWER FAST What is the theoretical probability that a coin toss results in two heads showing?
Mnenie [13.5K]

Theoretical probability is based on the likelihood of events.  It is the ratio of successes to the total number of cases.  For flipping a coin once, the theoretical probability of it coming up heads is .5 and the probability of it coming up tails is .5 (assuming it will never land on its edge and stay that way).

 

The problem statement must mean “tossing a coin twice” or “tossing two coins.”  Which did you do in your experiment??

So, let’s enumerate (list all the equally-likely cases) that can occur with two coins:

   HH

   HT

   TH

   TT

 

The probability (likelihood) of getting two heads is 1 in 4  (.25).  The likelihood of getting two tails is also 1 in 4 (.25).  However, the likelihood of getting one head and one tail (in any order) is 2 in 4  (.5).

Note:  the probability of a coin flip does not depend on what has happened in previous flips; this is very important !!

 

An experiment may differ from this theoretical probability for a number of reasons:  The coin might actually not be “fair,” you may have a flipping technique that favors one result (if so, you might want to become a gambler), …  

 

Although experimental probability may differ from theoretical probability, it should not be too much different (note:  we could express the probability that it will be 10% off, 20% off, etc.)

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help! 20 points
Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

I think that this is the answer is (B)

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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