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PolarNik [594]
3 years ago
6

A key distinction between a risk response and a contingency plan is A. A risk response is established only for moderate risks wh

ile contingency plans are established for major risks. B. A risk response is part of the actual implementation plan and action is taken before the risk can materialize, while a contingency plan goes into effect only after the risk has transpired. C. A risk response is only effective when you are able to assess the likelihood of the risk and its impact on the project; all other risks are covered by contingency planning. D. A risk response is created by the project team and the project manager while the project manager and the customer agree on the contingency plan. E. A risk response is action that is the response to a risk once it has happened and the contingency plan is created by the customer if the risk response fails.
Business
2 answers:
Yakvenalex [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is the option B: A risk response is part of the actual implementation plan and action is taken before the risk can materialize, while a contingency plan goes into effect only after the risk has transpired.

Explanation:

On the one hand, a <em>risk response</em> involves the process of controlling risks that are already known by the people who make the plan in the first place and therefore that this type of concept includes the idea of doing something before the worst happen and therefore to avoid the risks.

On the other hand, a <em>contingency plan</em> involves the process of planning for an unexpected situation that did not happen before and was not established in the original plan, therefore that this type of concept includes the idea of acting over the margin due to the exceptional situation that occurs.

cupoosta [38]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: B. A risk response is part of the actual implementation plan and action is taken before the risk can materialize, while a contingency plan goes into effect only after the risk has transpired

Explanation: While contingency plans describe set of specific intended actions that can be taken if specific opportunities or threats occur, a risk response involves ways of reducing or eliminating threats to a project while enhancing opportunities.

Therefore, a key distinction between a risk response and a contingency plan is that in a risk response, action is taken before risks can materialize and is part of the actual implementation plan while a contingency plan goes into play only after risks are recognized and isn't a part of the initial implementation plan.

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Elena-2011 [213]

Answer:

20X9 depreciation expense is $160

Explanation:

Under the straight-line method, useful life is 5 years, so the asset's annual depreciation will be 20%.

Under the double-declining-balance method the 20% straight line rate is doubled to 40% - multiplied times the Depreciable cost's book value at the beginning of the year.

In 20X6, depreciation expense = 40% x $10,000 = $4,000

At the beginning of the year 20X7, the truck cost's book value is $10,000-$4,000 = $6,000

In 20X7, depreciation expense = 40% x $6,000 = $2,400

In 20X8, depreciation expense = 40% x ($10,000 - $4,000 - $2,400) = $1,440

Accumulated depreciation at December 31 20X8 = $4,000 + $2,400 + $1,440 = $7,840

Book value at December 31 20X8 = $10,000 - $4,000 - $2,400 - $1,440 = $2,160

In 20X9, depreciation expense = $10,000 - $2,000 - $7,840 = $160

The 20X9 depreciation expense was $160 which is less than the actual $864 (40% of $2,160). It was done to keep the residual value as estimated ($2,000)

4 0
3 years ago
Pamela, a 1/3 partner, has an adjusted basis of $100,000 for her partnership interest. If Pamela sells her entire partnership in
creativ13 [48]

Answer: Capital gain = $10,000 ; Ordinary income = $25,000

Explanation:

Here is the complete question:

The PLM Partnership balance sheet includes the following assets on December 31 of the current year:

Basis FMV

Cash $230,000 $230,000

Accounts receivable 0 75000

Land 70,000 100,000

Total $300,000 $405,000

Pamela, a 1/3 partner, has an adjusted basis of $100,000 for her partnership interest. If Pamela sells her entire partnership interest to Emma for $135,000 cash, how much capital gain and ordinary income must Pamela recognize from the sale?

The following can be calculated based on the question above:

Pamela's share of the unrealized receivables will be the ordinary income which will be the unrealized receivables of $75000 which is then multiplied by 1/3 which is the interest. This will be:

Ordinary income = 1/3 × $75,00

= $25,000

The capital gain will be the difference that occurs between total gain and ordinary income.

Total gain difference

= $135,000 - $100,000

= $35,000

Ordinary Income = $25,000

Capital gain = $35,000 - $25,000

= $10,000

5 0
2 years ago
Swifty Inc. manufactures two products: car wheels and truck wheels. To determine the amount of overhead to assign to each produc
Katen [24]

Answer:

$10.60 per direct labor hour

Explanation:

Calculation for the overhead rate

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Let plug in the formula

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Let plug in the formula

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Total direct labor hours=70,000 hours

Now let calculate the Overhead rate using this formula

Overhead rate = Total estimated overhead costs / Total direct labor hours

Overhead rate= $742,000 / 70,000 hours

Overhead rate= $10.60 per direct labor hour

Therefore Overhead rate is $10.60 per direct labor hour

8 0
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