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tangare [24]
2 years ago
13

A 4% S/A coupon bond with 4 coupons remaining has a BEY of 8.00%. You buy the bond a little over a month before you get the firs

t coupon. Specifically, the fraction of the 6-month period that has already elapsed is 0.80. Calculate the dirty price of this bond.
Business
1 answer:
ElenaW [278]2 years ago
8 0

A 4% S/A coupon bond with 4 coupons remaining has a BEY of 8.00%,  is mathematically given as

DP=95.696. Option D is correct

<h3>What is the dirty price of this bond?</h3>

Generally, dirty price is simply defined as It's important to note that a "dirty price" is simply a bond pricing quotation that takes into account both the coupon rate and any interest that has already accumulated on the bond.

In conclusion, Dirty price

DP = (Clean price +  interest Accrued)

Therefore

DP=0.80*(4%*100/2)+2*(1-(1+4%)^(-3.20))/(4%)+100/(1+4%)^(3.20)

DP=95.696

CQ

A4% S/A coupon bond with 4 coupons remaining has a BEY of 8.00%. You buy the bond a little over a month before you get the first coupon. Specifically, the fraction of the 6-month period that has already elapsed is 0.80.

Calculate the dirty price of this bond.

O 81.370

85.216

93.471

o 95.696

Read more about dirty price

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aleksandrvk [35]

Answer:

Benefit

Explanation:

Benefit segmentation is dividing or spilt up the market grounded on the perceived advantage or benefit and value consumers perceive, that they will receive from the service or the product.

The person could segment the market grounded on the performance, quality, special features, customer service and other advantages.

Therefore, the fact that the some of the customers want the flavored water bottles and others want to have it with the added minerals, it provides an opportunity for the benefit segmentation.

3 0
3 years ago
A mutual fund has $2 million in cash and $6 million invested in securities. It currently has 1 million shares outstanding.
Mamont248 [21]

Answer:

a. NAV = 8 per share

b. 250.000 shares

c. 7.95

Explanation:

a. NAV = Market value of shares/number of shares = $8m/1m = $8 per share

b. At the current NAV, it can absorb up to $2 million, or 250,000 shares.

c-1. Its loss by selling 25,000 shares of IBM at $34 instead of $36 = -$2 x 25,000 = -$50,000.

New NAV = $7,950,000 /1m = $7.95

5 0
3 years ago
In​ 1916, the ford motor company sold​ 500,000 model t fords at a price of​ $440. henry ford believed that he could increase sal
quester [9]
For the answer to the question above,
we must use this formula,
(New - Old)/ (Ave. of New and Old)

In this case,
501k -500k/(500,500(which is the ave. of the two.
Then it would be 1k/500,500

Then the answer would be .0020
Then
-1.439.5/439.5 because this is the average of the two.
so the answer would be .0023

Then finally divide the rate on change of quantity by the rate of change in price which is
0.002/-0.0023

Then the answer would be -.87

So the elasticity on the demand of model T is .87 ( remove the negative because elasticity is always positive.)

6 0
3 years ago
Changes in the PPI can predict changes in the consumer price index because
Lelu [443]
Producers often pass along price increases to customer.
5 0
3 years ago
At the end of the current year, using the aging of receivable method, management estimated that $28,500 of the accounts receivab
lyudmila [28]

Answer:

Adjusting entry the company made to record its estimated bad debts expense:

Bad Debts Expense 29,300

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 29,300

Explanation:

The company uses the aging of receivable method to estimate uncollectible.

Estimated uncollectible would be $28,500

Before year-end adjustments, the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a debit balance of $800

Bad debts expense = $28,500 + $800 = $29,300

Adjusting entry the company made to record its estimated bad debts expense:

Bad Debts Expense 29,300

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 29,300

3 0
3 years ago
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