Answer:
1410
Step by step explanation:
<em>2</em><em>/</em><em>5</em><em>x</em><em>=</em><em>5</em><em>6</em><em>4</em>
<em>5</em><em>/</em><em>2</em><em>*</em><em>2</em><em>/</em><em>5</em><em>x</em><em>=</em><em>5</em><em>6</em><em>4</em><em>*</em><em>5</em><em>/</em><em>2</em>
<em>x</em><em>=</em><em>1</em><em>4</em><em>1</em><em>0</em>
<em>Proof</em><em>:</em><em> </em><em>2</em><em>/</em><em>5</em><em>*</em><em>1</em><em>4</em><em>1</em><em>0</em><em>=</em><em>5</em><em>6</em><em>4</em>
Hope it helps <3
So we know that the bag has total 15 cookies, and 1 cookie that does not have any raisin. Finally, the probability that one cookie won't have any raisin is 1/15 or 7 percent. Hope it help!
128 ÷3=42.66
it doesn't say if they have to pay the money back but if they do it's
128-35= 43
43÷3= 14.33
Answer:
$1.50 dollars per bag and at that rate it would be $7.50 for 6 bags of chips
Step-by-step explanation:
Just an 15% 15.8% to be exact
