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Usimov [2.4K]
3 years ago
14

Somebody plzzzzzz help me on this

Mathematics
1 answer:
Andrej [43]3 years ago
7 0
It is option D, "Line h has points on planes R, P, and T".
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An urn contains n white balls andm black balls. (m and n are both positive numbers.) (a) If two balls are drawn without replacem
Genrish500 [490]

DISCLAIMER: Please let me rename b and w the number of black and white balls, for the sake of readability. You can switch the variable names at any time and the ideas won't change a bit!

<h2>(a)</h2>

Case 1: both balls are white.

At the beginning we have b+w balls. We want to pick a white one, so we have a probability of \frac{w}{b+w} of picking a white one.

If this happens, we're left with w-1 white balls and still b black balls, for a total of b+w-1 balls. So, now, the probability of picking a white ball is

\dfrac{w-1}{b+w-1}

The probability of the two events happening one after the other is the product of the probabilities, so you pick two whites with probability

\dfrac{w}{b+w}\cdot \dfrac{w-1}{b+w-1}=\dfrac{w(w-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

Case 2: both balls are black

The exact same logic leads to a probability of

\dfrac{b}{b+w}\cdot \dfrac{b-1}{b+w-1}=\dfrac{b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

These two events are mutually exclusive (we either pick two whites or two blacks!), so the total probability of picking two balls of the same colour is

\dfrac{w(w-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}+\dfrac{b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}=\dfrac{w(w-1)+b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

<h2>(b)</h2>

Case 1: both balls are white.

In this case, nothing changes between the two picks. So, you have a probability of \frac{w}{b+w} of picking a white ball with the first pick, and the same probability of picking a white ball with the second pick. Similarly, you have a probability \frac{b}{b+w} of picking a black ball with both picks.

This leads to an overall probability of

\left(\dfrac{w}{b+w}\right)^2+\left(\dfrac{b}{b+w}\right)^2 = \dfrac{w^2+b^2}{(b+w)^2}

Of picking two balls of the same colour.

<h2>(c)</h2>

We want to prove that

\dfrac{w^2+b^2}{(b+w)^2}\geq \dfrac{w(w-1)+b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

Expading all squares and products, this translates to

\dfrac{w^2+b^2}{b^2+2bw+w^2}\geq \dfrac{w^2+b^2-b-w}{b^2+2bw+w^2-b-w}

As you can see, this inequality comes in the form

\dfrac{x}{y}\geq \dfrac{x-k}{y-k}

With x and y greater than k. This inequality is true whenever the numerator is smaller than the denominator:

\dfrac{x}{y}\geq \dfrac{x-k}{y-k} \iff xy-kx \geq xy-ky \iff -kx\geq -ky \iff x\leq y

And this is our case, because in our case we have

  1. x=b^2+w^2
  2. y=b^2+w^2+2bw so, y has an extra piece and it is larger
  3. k=b+w which ensures that k<x (and thus k<y), because b and w are integers, and so b<b^2 and w<w^2

4 0
3 years ago
What is the value of x?
____ [38]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

10

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Evaluate the polynomial 6x - y for x= -3 and Y=2.<br> A.15 <br> B. -20<br> C.4<br> D.-16
ra1l [238]
I think the answer is B.
6(-3)=-18, and y=2
so 6x-y=-18-2=-20
6 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me please?
Elena-2011 [213]
<h3>Answer:  4368 square feet</h3>

======================================================

Explanation:

Check out the diagram below

I drew a rectangle with dimensions 56 ft by 78 ft.

Then I broke up the 56 into 50+6, and I broke up the 78 into 70+8

The reason for this is because it's fairly easy to multiply the areas of each smaller rectangle at this point

  • In the upper left corner, we have an area of 50*70 = 3500. Note how this is basically 5*7 = 35, but we tack on the two zeros (from 50 and 70 combined)
  • In the upper right corner, we have an area of 70*6 = 420
  • In the lower left corner, we have an area of 50*8 = 400
  • In the lower right corner, we have an area of 6*8 = 48

Add up all the areas found: 3500+420+400+48 = 4368

As a way to check, using your calculator shows that 56*78 = 4368

8 0
3 years ago
Determine if the set is a Pythagorean triple
balandron [24]

Answer:

Pythagorean Triples are sets of whole numbers for which the Pythagorean Theorem holds true. The most well-known triple is 3, 4, 5. This means that 3 and 4 are the lengths of the legs and 5 is the hypotenuse.

4 0
3 years ago
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