Answer:
because you spend 1k or more
Answer:
B) There is an inflationary gap, and contractionary fiscal policy is appropriate.
Explanation:
One of the macroeconomic cases is inflationary gap. It means that the difference between the current level of real gross domestic product (GDP) and the predicted or forecasted GDP that would be experienced and achieved if an economy is at full employment. It could be claimed that when the demand for goods and services gets over the production in the factors such as: higher levels of overall employment, increased trade activities or increased government expenditure.
In order to overcome this gap, the contractionary fiscal policy must be considered. The mechanism of that policy is to increase the taxes decrease the government expenses due to inflationary pressures. This policy consequently will affect the level of consumption and private investment, respectively, these also will decrease the real GDP.
Other concept of macroeconomics is recessionary gap. In comparison to inflationary gap, this concept indicates the economy operating at lower level than its full equilibrium level, in turn, the level of real GDP is also less than full equilibrium level. We used to see this situation when the economy was intending to recess.
In order to overcome this gap, the expansionary fiscal policy will work well. Because of decreasing taxes and increasing government expenditures, the recessionary gap can be fought anymore. Since the taxes decreases, the business will revive and the confidence to the investment will increase, as a result the GDP will rise. Moreover, the growing government expenditures will stimulate the GDP to accrue.
To summarize, according to the question we need the gap in which the economy is above of potential, this means inflationary gap. Following this finding, the contractionary fiscal policy will be solution.
Answer:
$60,000
Explanation:
Sales Price $125,000
Less BV $140, 000
Loss on Sale $15,000
Equipment transferred at BV (Cost $140,000
Less Accumulated Depreciation. $40,000 $100,000 Depreciation.
For 2012
($100,000/5) $40,000 = $60,000
Therefore the Book Value at 12/31/2012 is $60,000
Answer:
The correct answer is C: underapplied by $2,500
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Martinez Manufacturing applies overhead based on direct labor hours.
The company estimates that their overhead for the year will be $180,000 and that they will use 72,000 direct labor hours.
During the year, Martinez Manufacturing used 75,000 direct labor hours and actual overhead costs were $190,000
We need to calculate if the overhead was under or over applied and in what amount.
Predetermined overhead rate= total estimated manufacturing overhead for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined overhead rate= 180000/72000= $2.5 an hour
Now, we can calculate the amount of overhead allocated:
Overhead allocated= 75000 hours*2.5= $187,500
Over/under applied= actual overhead - allocated overhead= 190,000 - 185,500= $2,500 underapplied
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Step-by-step explanation:
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.
