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Anestetic [448]
4 years ago
8

100 Points + Brainliest!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
solong [7]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

hssk

faltersainse [42]4 years ago
3 0
Y=4x+2 on (0,3) so start at the point (0,3) then go up 2 and there is your answer!
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I will give you guys 100 points if you help me for just these 5 questions please
nignag [31]

Remember that squaring something is just multiplying that number by itself.

55^2 = 55 \times 55 = 3025

95^2 = 95 \times 95 = 9025

75^2 = 75 \times 75 = 5625

45^2 = 45 \times 45 = 2025

35^2 = 35 \times 35 = 1225

3 0
3 years ago
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A group of kids just finished trick-or-treating. The number of pieces of candy collected by each of the 5 kids is listed below.
AleksandrR [38]
The standard deviation is about 3.81
To find standard deviation on calculator hit stat, 1, enter in each number, hit stat again, the hit the arrow to go to calc, then 1, and enter until it shows you the stats. The icon that says Sx is standard deviation for the data set you entered.
4 0
2 years ago
Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
4 years ago
An athletic coach conducted an experiment to test whether a four-week stretching and flexibility program reduces the number of m
nirvana33 [79]

Answer: This study uses a control group, this study uses repeated measures design, and this study uses random sampling

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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How do you graph a system of linear equation?
Serhud [2]
Draw the graph for each side, member, of the equation and see where the curves cross, are equal. The x values of these points, are the solutions to the equation.
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3 years ago
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