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Hitman42 [59]
3 years ago
7

If there is 37 cars and 10 are speeding, what percentage of cars is speeding?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Helen [10]3 years ago
6 0
27.03% is your answer
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12a +5 identify the coefficient
ioda

Answer:

The coefficient is "12"

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Encircle the variable along with its power whose coefficient we are finding.

Step 2: Leave that variable and consider all other numbers or variables written with it. That will be the coefficient.

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help, i really dont understand. will give brainliest.
hoa [83]

Answer:

I've done the math and it's 120, people say it's 120 and online 120, I really wanna help but I just

5 0
3 years ago
Point Q is plotted on the coordinate grid. Point P is at (10, −20). Point R is vertically above point Q. It is at the same dista
bixtya [17]

Answer:

Point R is at (−20, 10), a distance of 30 units from point Q

Step-by-step explanation:

Q has coordinates (-20,-20).

P has coordinates (10,-20)

Since point R is vertically above point Q, it will have the same x-coordinate as Q.

Let R have coordinates (-20,y).

It was given that;

|RQ|=|PQ|

\Rightarrow |y--20|=|10--20|

\Rightarrow y+20=10+20

\Rightarrow y=10+20-20

\Rightarrow y=10.

The coordinates of R are (-20,10).

The dstance from Q is 30 units.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Determine if the given mapping phi is a homomorphism on the given groups. If so, identify its kernel and whether or not the mapp
shtirl [24]

Answer:

(a) No. (b)Yes. (c)Yes. (d)Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) If \phi: G \longrightarrow G is an homomorphism, then it must hold

that b^{-1}a^{-1}=(ab)^{-1}=\phi(ab)=\phi(a)\phi(b)=a^{-1}b^{-1},

but the last statement is true if and only if G is abelian.

(b) Since G is abelian, it holds that

\phi(a)\phi(b)=a^nb^n=(ab)^{n}=\phi(ab)

which tells us that \phi is a homorphism. The kernel of \phi

is the set of elements g in G such that g^{n}=1. However,

\phi is not necessarily 1-1 or onto, if G=\mathbb{Z}_6 and

n=3, we have

kern(\phi)=\{0,2,4\} \quad \text{and} \quad\\\\Im(\phi)=\{0,3\}

(c) If z_1,z_2 \in \mathbb{C}^{\times} remeber that

|z_1 \cdot z_2|=|z_1|\cdot|z_2|, which tells us that \phi is a

homomorphism. In this case

kern(\phi)=\{\quad z\in\mathbb{C} \quad | \quad |z|=1 \}, if we write a

complex number as z=x+iy, then |z|=x^2+y^2, which tells

us that kern(\phi) is the unit circle. Moreover, since

kern(\phi) \neq \{1\} the mapping is not 1-1, also if we take a negative

real number, it is not in the image of \phi, which tells us that

\phi is not surjective.

(d) Remember that e^{ix}=\cos(x)+i\sin(x), using this, it holds that

\phi(x+y)=e^{i(x+y)}=e^{ix}e^{iy}=\phi(x)\phi(x)

which tells us that \phi is a homomorphism. By computing we see

that  kern(\phi)=\{2 \pi n| \quad n \in \mathbb{Z} \} and

Im(\phi) is the unit circle, hence \phi is neither injective nor

surjective.

7 0
3 years ago
Help please! I need this question done super fast.
vekshin1

Answer: The answer is yes because figure B is figure A divided by 2

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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