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11111nata11111 [884]
3 years ago
6

Colman Company reports ending inventory in year 1 of $25,000 instead of the correct amount of $20,000. The effects of this error

include:
Year 1 ending inventory is understated and year 1 cost of goods sold is overstated

Year 1 ending inventory is overstated and year 1 cost of goods sold is understated

Year 1 ending inventory is understated and year 1 cost of goods sold is understated

Year 1 ending inventory is overstated and year 1 cost of goods sold is overstated
Business
1 answer:
Elodia [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Year 1 ending inventory is overstated and year 1 cost of goods sold is understated

Explanation:

The amount of ending inventory is increased by $ 5000 so the ending inventory is overstated and the cost of goods sold is understated as an amount of additional $ 5000 is deducted from it. For better understanding we consider the following

Opening Inventory $ 15000

Purchases $ 50,000

<u>Ending Inventory $ 20,000</u>

Cost Of Goods Sold = $ 45,000

Suppose we write $ 20,000 as $ 25,000 we get

Opening Inventory $ 15000

Purchases $ 50,000

<u>Ending Inventory $ 25,000</u>

Cost Of Goods Sold = $ 40,000

So we see that Year 1 ending inventory is overstated and year 1 cost of goods sold is understated  by an amount of $ 5000

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1 year ago
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Answer:

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Explanation:

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2 years ago
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kenny6666 [7]

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D

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2 years ago
2. What are some reasons the seller was willing to sell the product at this price?​
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To get it out of His hands

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2 years ago
What is the expected value when a $1 lottery ticket is bought in which the purchaser wins exactly $10 million if the ticket cont
Nadusha1986 [10]

We expect to lose $0.37 per lottery ticket

<u>Explanation:</u>

six winning numbers from = { 1, 2, 3, ....., 50}

So, the probability of winning:

P(win) = \frac{ no of favorable outcomes}{no of possible outcomes}

P(win) = \frac{1}{^5^0C_6} \\\\P (win) = \frac{6! X (50 - 6)!}{50!} \\\\P(win) = \frac{6! X 44!}{50!} \\\\P(win) = \frac{1}{15,890,700}

The probability of losing would be:

P(loss) = 1 - P(win)

P(loss) = 1 - \frac{1}{15,890,700} \\\\P(loss) = \frac{15,890,699}{15,890,700}

According to the question,

When we win, then we gain $10 million and lose the cost of the lottery ticket.

So,

$10,000,000 - 1 = $9,999,999

When we lose, then we lose the cost of the lottery ticket = $1

The expected value is the sum of the product of each possibility x with its probability P(x):

E(x) = ∑ xP(x)

= 9,999,999 X \frac{1}{15,890,700}  + ( -1 ) X \frac{15,890,699}{15,890,700} \\\\=- \frac{5,890,700}{15,890,700} \\\\= - \frac{58,907}{158,907} \\\\= - 0.37

Thus, we expect to lose $0.37 per lottery ticket

7 0
3 years ago
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