It would be because of Non selling activities
Had to look for the options and here is my answer. Given that the bank possesses a liability that is worth $150 billion and its net worth is only $20 billion, then this would mean that the bank must have ASSETS OF $170 BILLION. Hope this answers your question.
At the end of given period the gross profit method is required to estimate inventory.The valuation become invalid when the following are not available.the value for the beginning of inventory,records of purchase made, the total sale during the period and the gross profit margin.
Answer:
b. 1,062.81
Explanation:
the key to answer this question is to remember that valuation of a bond depends basically of calculating the present value of a series of cash flows, so let´s think about a bond as if you were a lender so you will get interest by the money you lend (coupon) and at the end of n years you will get back the money you lend at the beginnin (principal), so applying math we have the bond value given by:
![price=\frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{1} }+ \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{2} } \frac{principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{3} }+...+\frac{principal+principal*coupon}{(1+i)^{n} }](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=price%3D%5Cfrac%7Bprincipal%2Acoupon%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5E%7B1%7D%20%7D%2B%20%5Cfrac%7Bprincipal%2Acoupon%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%20%5Cfrac%7Bprincipal%2Acoupon%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5E%7B3%7D%20%7D%2B...%2B%5Cfrac%7Bprincipal%2Bprincipal%2Acoupon%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5E%7Bn%7D%20%7D)
where: principal as said before is the value lended, coupon is the rate of interest paid, i is the interest rate and n is the number of periods
so applying to this particular exercise, as it is not said we will assume that 6% and 7% are interest rate convertible seminually, so the price of the bond will be:
![price=\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{1} } +\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{2} }+\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{3} }+...+\frac{1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{15} }+\frac{1,000+1,000*\frac{0.07}{2} }{(1+\frac{0.06}{2}) ^{16} }](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=price%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%2A%5Cfrac%7B0.07%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.06%7D%7B2%7D%29%20%5E%7B1%7D%20%7D%20%2B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%2A%5Cfrac%7B0.07%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.06%7D%7B2%7D%29%20%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%2B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%2A%5Cfrac%7B0.07%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.06%7D%7B2%7D%29%20%5E%7B3%7D%20%7D%2B...%2B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%2A%5Cfrac%7B0.07%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.06%7D%7B2%7D%29%20%5E%7B15%7D%20%7D%2B%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%2B1%2C000%2A%5Cfrac%7B0.07%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2B%5Cfrac%7B0.06%7D%7B2%7D%29%20%5E%7B16%7D%20%7D)
price=1,062.81
take into account that here we are asked about semianually payments, so in 8 years there are 16 semesters.
Answer:
The remaining part of the question is:
The interest payments are reinvested at the:
a.Coupon rate.
b.Current yield.
c.Yield to maturity at the time of the investment.
d.Prevailing yield to maturity at the time interest payments are received.
e.The average yield to maturity throughout the investment period
<u>Correct Answer:</u>
b.<u>Current yield. </u>
<u></u>
Explanation: