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Vedmedyk [2.9K]
3 years ago
9

you are dividing 3972 by 41 explain why the first digit in the quotient should be placed over the tens place of the dividend

Mathematics
2 answers:
ValentinkaMS [17]3 years ago
5 0
<span>41)3972...since 41>39 you won't have the first digit of the quotient in the</span>
Paladinen [302]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

We have to divide 3972  by 41.

This means that 3972 is the dividend and 41 is the divisor.

When we start dividing the dividend by the divisor the first digit in the quotient is placed over the tens place of the dividend since 41 is greater than 39 so, we have to take one more digit of the dividend so that it could be divisible by 41.

i..e we have to firstly consider 397 and see which multiple of 41 is smaller or equal to 397.

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2 years ago
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Read 2 more answers
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Answer:

=- 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

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8 0
2 years ago
In a random sample 765 adults in the United States, 322 say they could not cover a $400 unexpected expense without borrowing mon
Volgvan

Answer:

a) The population under consideration in the data set is "adults in the United States".

b) The parameter being estimated is the proportion of adults in the U.S. that could not cover a $400 unexpected expense without borrowing money or going into debt.

c) The point estimate for the parameter of the population is p-hat.

d) The standard deviation of the sampling distribution

e)

\hat p=322/765=0.421\\\\s=\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } =\sqrt{\frac{0.421\cdot 0.579}{765} } =\sqrt{0.00032} =0.018

f) Yes, 50% is a value not probable if the estimations are right.

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Step-by-step explanation:

f) We can calculate the plausability of the value 50% with our estimations.

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6 0
2 years ago
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