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kramer
3 years ago
14

A firm just paid an annual dividend of $1.00 today. The dividend is expected to growth at a rate of 14% for the next three years

, and then 6% thereafter. The required rate of return on this stock is 9%. What is the value of this stock? Round to the nearest cent. Do not include the dollar sign in your answer. (i.e. If your answer were $1.23, then type 1.23 without a $ sign)
Business
1 answer:
pychu [463]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Value of stock is $49.33

Explanation:

Dividend valuation method is used to calculate the the value of stock based on the dividend paid, its growth rate and rate of return.

Calculate dividend after 3 years first

Current Dividend = D0 = $1

Dividend after 3 year = D3 = D0 ( 1 + g )^n = $1 ( 1 + 0.14 )^3 = $1.48

Rate of return = r = 9%

Growth = g = 6%

DVM Formula for stock value

Price  = Dividend / Rate of return - Growth rate

Price of stock = D3 / ( r - g ) = $1.48 / ( 9% - 6% ) = $1.48 / 3% = $49.33

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Investment X offers to pay you $4,020 per year for 12 years, whereas Investment Y offers to pay you $2,041 per year for 7 years.
inna [77]

Answer:

$16,481.68

Explanation:

Note that the present value of each yearly cash inflow can be determined using the formula provided below:

PV of cash inflow=cash inflow/(1+discount rate)^n

n is the year in which the cash inflow is expected, it is 1 for year 1 cash inflow, 2 for year 2 and so on.

PV of Investment X=$4,020/(1+11%)^1+$4,020/(1+11%)^2+$4,020/(1+11%)^3+$4,020/(1+11%)^4+$4,020/(1+11%)^5+$4,020/(1+11%)^6+$4,020/(1+11%)^7+$4,020/(1+11%)^8+$4,020/(1+11%)^9+$4,020/(1+11%)^10+$4,020/(1+11%)^11+$4,020/(1+11%)^12

PV of investment X=$26,099.27

PV of investment Y=$2,041/(1+11%)^1+$2,041/(1+11%)^2+$2,041/(1+11%)^3+$2,041/(1+11%)^4+$2,041/(1+11%)^5+$2,041/(1+11%)^6+$2,041/(1+11%)^7

PV of investment Y=$9,617.59  

the difference in PV=$26,099.27-$9,617.59

the difference in PV=$16,481.68  

5 0
3 years ago
Tulloch Manufacturing has a target debt–equity ratio of .64. Its cost of equity is 14.6 percent, and its pretax cost of debt is
malfutka [58]

Answer:

The company’s WACC is 11.38%

Explanation:

After tax cost of debt = 9.6*(1 - 0.34)

                                    = 6.336%

Debt-equity ratio = Debt/Equity

debt = 0.64*Equity

Let equity be $x

debt = $0.64x

Total = $1.64x

WACC = Respective costs*Respective weights

           = (6.336*0.64x/1.64x) + (14.6/1.64x)

           = 11.38%

Therefore, The company’s WACC is 11.38%

3 0
3 years ago
Flyer Company has provided the following information prior to any year-end bad debt adjustment: Cash sales, $153,000 Credit sale
rodikova [14]

Answer:

Balance of allowance for doubtful accounts after Bad debt Expense is $2700

Explanation:

given data

Cash sales=  $153,000

Credit sales = $453,000

Selling and administrative expenses = $113,000

Sales returns and allowances= $33,000

Gross profit = $493,000

Accounts receivable = $140,000

Sales discounts = $17,000

doubtful accounts credit balance =  $1,500

solution

we know here Total Bad Debit = 3% of accounts receivable

that is Total Bad Debit =  0.03 × $140,000

Total Bad Debit =  $4200

so here allowance for doubtful account credit balance = $1500

so

Balance of allowance for doubtful accounts after Bad debt Expense will be

Balance of allowance for doubtful accounts =  $4200 - $1500

Balance of allowance for doubtful accounts  = $2700

6 0
3 years ago
For each of the following transactions below, prepare the journal entry (if one is required) to record the initial transaction a
Nikitich [7]

Answer and Explanation:

the journal entries are as follows:

a Prepaid rent $213,000

               To cash  $213,000

(To record prepaid rent)  

Adjusting entry:  

Rent expense $71,000  ($213,000 ÷ 3)  

        Prepaid rent  $71,000

(To record September rent expense)  

b Cash $840,000

         To unearned sales revenue $840,000

(To record cash received on season sales)  

Adjusting entry:  

Unearned sales revenue  ($840,000 ÷ 12)  $70,000

          Sales revenue $70,000

(To record sales revenue recognised)  

c Cash $300,000

      Note payable  $300,000

(To record note payable issued on borrowed amount )  

Adjusting entry:  

Interest expense ($300,000 × 6% ÷ 12) $1,500

         Interest payable   $1,500

(To record interest payable due)  

d Prepaid advertising 3,500

          To Cash 3,500

(To record cash paid for advertising)  

Adjusting entry:  

Advertising expense ($3,500 ÷  60) × 20 $1,167

   To prepaid advertising  $1,167

e No entry  

Adjusting entry:  

Accounte receivable ($160,000 × 8%) $12,800

        Sales revenue   $12,800

(To record amout due)  

6 0
3 years ago
Innovative Tech Inc (ITI) uses the percentage of credit sales method to estimate bad debts each month and then uses the aging me
Nutka1998 [239]

Answer:

The answer is given below;                                            

Explanation:

1. $100,000*.5%=$500

Bad Debt Expense Dr.$500

Allowance for Bad Debt Cr.$500

2. 1-30 days   $75,000*10%=7,500

   31-90 days  $10,000*20%=2,000

   More than 90 days $4,000*40%=1,600

Total Allowance for Doubtful Accounts-Closing=$11,100

3.  Adjusting entry for December 31,2013

Opening Balance      ($1,600)

Closing balance         $11,100

Allowance for the year $9,500

Bad Debt Expense Dr.$9,500

Account Receivable  Cr.$9,500

4. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  $11,100

8 0
4 years ago
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