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svlad2 [7]
4 years ago
5

What is the relationship between a perfectly competitive firm's marginal cost curve and its supply curve?

Business
1 answer:
julsineya [31]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C) A firm's marginal cost curve is equal to its supply curve for prices above average variable cost

Explanation:

A perfectly competitive firm maximizes its profit when its marginal cost = marginal revenue. In the short run, it will continue to produce even if the marginal revenue is lower than its marginal costs, as long as the marginal costs are ≥ average variable costs.

Therefore, all perfectly competitive firms should supply products or services following its marginal cost curve as long as the price ≥ average variable costs.

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When a company makes an end-of-year adjusting entry which includes a debit to Supplies Expense to account for supplies used duri
julia-pushkina [17]

Answer:

When a company makes an end-of-year adjusting entry which includes a debit to Supplies Expense to account for supplies used during the period, which account is credited? The answer would be deferred asset amortization adjustment

Explanation:

The first step to take when completing the accounting procedures at the end of the year for a small business is to account for any necessary financial adjustments. Throughout the year, revenues are collected and expenses are deducted. However, the amount of certain financial transactions may differ from the moment they were made. Adjustments also have to be made for paid accounts. If the interest has been paid in monies held in a corporate savings account, it must be added to the ledger. Alternatively, if interest has been charged on credit card purchases, these transactions also have to be entered in the spreadsheet.

Deferred asset depreciation is not subject to the useful life of the concept, but will generally be amortized as assets are consumed or spent, then the depreciation can be done a few months or in several years, depending on the reality of each company and of each cost or expense.

However, as regards deferred charges, the standard has considered some guidelines to consider when paying off

4 0
4 years ago
Which of the following statements are correct concerning yield-to-maturity (YTM)?
kolezko [41]

Answer: Options (A), (C) and (D) are correct

Explanation:

Yield to maturity ,is referred to as or known as theoretical IRR or internal rate of return that is earned by a person or investor who tends to buy that bond at the respective market price, also assuming the bond is enclosed till maturity, and further knowing that coupon and other principal payments are to be made on the schedule. YTM is referred to as or known as discount rate on which sum of future cash flow tends to be equal to current price of bond.

5 0
4 years ago
The financial statements of Bramble Manufacturing Company report net sales of $569500 and accounts receivable of $91000 and $430
alisha [4.7K]

Answer:

8.5

Explanation:

Account receivable turnover is calculated by dividing the net credit sales by the average of account receivable .

Net sales $569,000

Account receivable $91,000

Account receivable - $43000

Average account receivables = (91000+43000)/2= $67,000

Account receivable turnover = 569000/67000 =8.5

8 0
3 years ago
2) Moonlight Company wrote off the account of one of its customers, X, in 2018 for $500. On January 21, 2019, X unexpectedly rep
DENIUS [597]

Answer:

A journal entry was carried out for Moonlight Company for January 21, 2019, and is shown below in the explanation section

Explanation:

Solution

Given that:

Moonlight Company Journal Entries on January 21, 2019

JOURNAL ENTRY  

Date                Account name                    Debit         Credit

Jan. 21, 2019               Cash                       500  

     (Income statement -Bad debts recovered)              500

         (record the bad debts recovery from customer X)

8 0
3 years ago
Caliber Corp. currently pays no dividends because it requires its internally generated funds be used to fund a research intensiv
Andreyy89

Answer:

Do =  $2.00

D1= Do(1+g)1 =  $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40

D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88

D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456

D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472

D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664

PHASE 1

V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5

V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5

V1 = $2.0870 + $2.1777 +  $2.2723 + $2.3712 + $2.4742

V1 = $11.3824

PHASE 2

V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      

V2 = $4.97664(1+0.02)/(0.15-0.02)(1+0.02)5      

V2 = $5.0762/0.1435

V2 = $35.3742

Po = V1 + V2

Po = $11.3824 + $35.3742

Po = $46.76

Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.

In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.

5 0
3 years ago
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