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Ivan
3 years ago
9

I'd really appreciate the help on this question! I'll give the Brainliest!

Mathematics
2 answers:
zmey [24]3 years ago
8 0

We will first define variables

Let Mike be M and Beth be B.

First inequality is 25M + 15B ≥ 1975 an the second is  B≤ 4M

When we replace B in the first inequality we get

25M + 15*4M ≥ 1975 => 25M + 60M ≥ 1975 => 85M ≥ 1975 =>

M ≥ 1975/85 => M ≥ 23.23 => M= 24

When we replace value for M in the second inequality we get

B ≤ 4*24 => B ≤ 96

We will check   25 * 24 + 15 * 96 = 600 + 1440 = 2040$ ≥ 1975$

That is correct!

If we accept M= 23 then B≤ 92

We will check again 25*23 + 15*92 = 575 + 1380 = 1955$ ≤ 1975$

That is incorrect!

Good luck!!!

LiRa [457]3 years ago
5 0
You set up first that it has to be greater than or equal to 1975. then you make 25x + 15y is what they are doing to get the money. then you make an inequality for 4y is less than or equal to x. then y is greater than or equal to 50. i couldnt go any farther then that and im sorry i hope this helps you get some where
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Find common arithmetic sequence: -2, -1 4/5, -1 3/5, -1 2/5
Alisiya [41]
-2 , -14/5 , -13/5, -12/5 , -11/5

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3 years ago
Please help ! I'll give brainliest as well.
zvonat [6]

Answer:

390 Millions of bacteria particles by the end of one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Bacteria Growth Rate Formula is:  ---> N (T) = N (0) * (1 + R) ^tT

N (0) = # of bacteria present during the beginning of the experiment

Variable R= Growth rate

Variable T= Time taken / elapsed.

Substitute the #'s for N (T)

N (0) and T from the given description

We then get the value of variable R.

220 = 20 * (1+R) ^ (24 hrs)

When solving for R, we get R = 0.105074

1 week= (7 x 24 = 168) hrs

We need to plug in the solutions

Therefore

N (168 hours) = 20 * (1+0.105074) ^168

Which is around 390 millions.

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4 0
3 years ago
What is the gradient of the graph shown? Give your answer in simplest form
gogolik [260]

Answer:

gradient = 2

line: y = 2x - 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the slope from the slope intercept formula

y = mx + b

b is the y intercept

b = -4 and the point is (0,-4)

So far the equation looks like this.

y = mx - 4

Use the other intercept (x intercept) to find m

x = 2

y = 0

0 = m*2 - 4                Add 4 to both sides

4 = 2m                      Divide by 2

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Calculus3 - Infinite sequences and series ( URGENT!!)​
natali 33 [55]

Answer:

Limit=0

Converges

Absolutely converges

Step-by-step explanation:

If a_n=\frac{2^n n!}{(3n+4)!}

then a_{n+1}=\frac{2^{n+1} (n+1)!}{(3(n+1)+4)!}.

Let's rewrite a__{n+1} a little.

I'm going to hone in on (3(n+1)+4)! for a bit.

Distribute: (3n+3+4)!

Combine like terms (3n+7)!

I know when I have to find the limit of that ratio I'm going to have to rewrite this a little more so I'm going to do that here. Notice the factor (3n+4)! in a_n. Some of the factors of this factor will cancel with some if the factors of (3n+7)!

(3n+7)! can be rewritten as (3n+7)×(3n+6)×(3n+5)×(3n+4)!

Let's go ahead and put our ratio together.

a_{n+1}×\frac{1}{a_n}

The second factor in this just means reciprocal of {a_n}.

Insert substitutions:

\frac{2^{n+1} (n+1)!}{(3(n+1)+4)!}×\frac{(3n+4)!}{2^nn!}

Use the rewrite for (3(n+1)+4)!:

\frac{2^{n+1} (n+1)!}{(3n+7)(3n+6)(3n+5)(3n+4)!}×\frac{(3n+4)!}{2^nn!}

Let's go ahead and cancel the (3n+4)!:

\frac{2^{n+1} (n+1)!}{(3n+7)(3n+6)(3n+5)}×\frac{1}{2^nn!}

Use 2^(n+1)=2^n × 2 with goal to cancel the 2^n factor on top and bottom:

\frac{2^{n}2(n+1)!}{(3n+7)(3n+6)(3n+5)}×\frac{1}{2^nn!}

\frac{2(n+1)!}{(3n+7)(3n+6)(3n+5)}×\frac{1}{n!}

Use (n+1)!=(n+1)×n! with goal to cancel the n! factor on top and bottom:

\frac{2(n+1)×n!}{(3n+7)(3n+6)(3n+5)}×\frac{1}{n!}

\frac{2(n+1)}{(3n+7)(3n+6)(3n+5)}×\frac{1}{1}

Now since n approaches infinity and the degree of top=1 and the degree of bottom is 3 and 1<3, the limit approaches 0.

This means it absolutely converges and therefore converges.

6 0
3 years ago
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