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ruslelena [56]
3 years ago
6

Wave Fashions uses standard costs for its manufacturing division. The allocation base for overhead costs is direct labor hours.

From the following​ data, calculate the total fixed overhead variance.Actual fixed overhead $ 32,000Budgeted fixed overhead $ 26,000Allocated fixed overhead $ 28,350Standard overhead allocation rate $ 6.75Standard direct labor hours per unit 2.1 DLHrActual output2,000 unitsA.$ 3,650 FB.$ 3,650 UC.$ 13,500 FD.$ 13,500 U
Business
1 answer:
horsena [70]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

B. $ 3,650 U

Explanation:

Wave Fashions

Actual fixed overhead $ 32,000

Budgeted fixed overhead $ 26,000

Allocated fixed overhead $ 28,350

Standard overhead allocation rate $ 6.75

Standard direct labor hours per unit 2.1 DLHr

Actual output 2,000 units

Total Fixed Overhead Variance =  Budget Variance + Volume Variance

                                                 =$ 6000 Unfav - $ 2350 Fav= $ 3650 Unfavorable

Budget Variance = Actual Fixed Overhead- Budgeted Fixed Overhead= $ 32,000- $ 26,000= $ 6000 unfavorable

Volume Variance = Budgeted Fixed Overhead- Allocated Fixed Overhead

Volume Variance= $ 26000-  ( Standard Fixed Overhead Rate * Standard Hours)

Volume Variance= $ 26000-  ( $ 6.75 * 2.1 * 2000)

Volume Variance= $ 26000- 28350 = 2350 favorable

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Margaret [11]

Answer:

wP = 114.5 / 514.6   = 0.2225 or 22.25%

Explanation:

The WACC or weighted average cost of capital is the cost of a firm's capital structure. The capital structure of a firm can be made up of one or more of the following components namely debt, preferred stock and common equity. The WACC is normally calculated using the market value of these components. The formula for WACC is,

WACC = wD * rD * (1-tax rate)  +  wP * rP  +  wE * rE

Where,

  • wD, wP and wE represents the weight of debt, preferred stock and common equity in the capital structure based on the market value
  • rD, rP and rE are the cost of debt, preferred stock and common equity respectively.

To calculate the weight that should be assigned to the preferred stock in the calculation of WACC, we need to determine the market value of preferred stock and the market value of the capital structure.

Market Value - Debt = 10000 * 1000 * 1.01  =  $10.1 million

Market Value - Preferred stock = 1 * 114.50  = $114.5 million

Market Value - Common equity = 26 * 15  =  $390 million

Total MV of capital structure = 10.1 + 114.5 + 390  = $514.6

wP = 114.5 / 514.6   = 0.2225 or 22.25%

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following elements is exclusive to the services marketing mix, and not the traditional marketing mix?a) processb) p
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

a) process

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The P's are Product, Pricing, Place, Promotion, People, Process and Physical Evidence and for Traditional Marketing is Product, Pricing, Place and Promotion

7 0
2 years ago
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Ilya [14]

Answer:

employer payroll taxes:

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2)

March 31, wages and salaries

Dr Wage expense 550,000

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3)

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Dr FICA taxes expense  39,325

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8 0
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Vsevolod [243]

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The straight-line amortization method is a simple way to amortize a bond as an equal amount of interest are allocated over every accounting period.

When using straight line amortization on premium bonds, the same interest income is reported each year. Therefore, option A is the best answer.

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