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Kamila [148]
3 years ago
12

A company uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts receivables. When the firm writes off a specific custo

mer’s account receivable A. total current assets are reducedB. total expenses for the period are increasedC. net realizable value of accounts receivable increasesD. there is no effect on total current assets or total expenses
Business
1 answer:
Butoxors [25]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

A) Total current assets are reduced

Explanation:

The account receivables are included in the Current Assets side and when the company writes off the debt of a client it reduce the value of the assets in the balance sheets to reflect that the amount to be collected it's less that the current amount.  

This reduction in the Current Assets have an impact in the Losses of the company in the Income Statement and it must be reflected.

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Stellar Plastics is analyzing a proposed project with annual depreciation of $19,500 and a tax rate of 34 percent. The company e
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

$20,226

Explanation:

expected sales = 11,400 - 12,000 - 12,600

expected sales price = $7.20 - $7.50 - $7.80

expected variable cost = $3.072 - $3.20 - $3.328

total fixed costs = $31,000

if you use an excel spreadsheet you can calculate all the different possible simulations and combine all the expected sales x 3 different price levels x 3 different variable costs and 1 fixed cost. Once you get all the 27 possible solutions, you just get the average.

I attached it because there is no room here.

Download pdf
0 0
3 years ago
Reason for a bimodel distribution
DedPeter [7]

The reason for a bimodel distribution is that a bimodal distribution may occasionally result from merging data from two processes or populations.

<h3>What is a bimodel distribution?</h3>
  • Two modes comprise a bimodal distribution. In other words, the results of two distinct processes are integrated into a single collection of data.
  • The distribution sometimes goes by the name "double-peaked." Consider the distribution of production data over two shifts in a manufacturing facility.
  • Bimodal distributions frequently happen as a result of underlying events.
  • A bimodal distribution, for instance, can be seen in the amount of patrons who visit a restaurant each hour because people typically eat out for lunch and dinner.
  • The bimodal distribution is brought on by the underlying human behavior.
  • If a data set has two modes, it is bimodal. This indicates that no particular data value has the highest frequency of occurrence. Instead, the highest frequency is tied between two data values.

Learn more about bimodel distribution here:

brainly.com/question/14971511

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3 0
10 months ago
Sydney has worked for WillCo for the last 20 years. She just had her 60th birthday and is thinking about retirement. WillCo spon
Wittaler [7]

Answer: c. Sydney can diversify 50% of her WillCo stock.

Explanation:

Employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) is simply referred to as an employee benefit where the employees of a particular company are given ownership interest as long as some certain criteria are met.

Once the workers become qualified participants, they can diversify certain percentage of their stocks. From the 1st-5th year, a qualified participant is allowed to diversify about 25% of his or her stock account and about 50% in the 6th year.

Based on the explanation, since Sydney has worked for WillCo for the last 20 years, Sydney can diversify 50% of her WillCo stock.

5 0
3 years ago
What job should i choose to be so rich
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

The top career choices for making the most money are being an investment banker or physician. Engineer and pharmacist are good options as well.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Carter Company reported the following financial numbers for one of its divisions for the year; average total assets of $4,110,00
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

$1,83,000

Explanation:

Sales = 4,535,000

Cost of goods sold = $2,560,000

Operating expenses  =  $1,382,000

Average total assets = $4,110,000

Net Income =  Sales - Cost of goods sold -  Operating expenses

= $4,535,000 - $2,560,000 -  $1,382,000

=  $5,93,000

Target income = 10%  of Average total assets

= 0.10 × $4,110,000

= $410,000

Thus,

Residual income = Net income - Target income

= $5,93,000 - $410,000

= $1,83,000

7 0
2 years ago
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