Answer:
The retained earning would be debited by ($60,000)
Explanation:
According to the given data we have the following:
Number of shares outstanding=60,000
par value of $5 per share
stock dividend declared=cc
Therefore, to calculate the amount either (debited) or credited to retained earnings we would have to make the followin calculation:
Dividend value=Number of shares outstanding×par value of $5 per share×stock dividend declared
Dividend value=60,000×$5×20%
Dividend value=($60,000)
Therefore, as the dividend paid reduces retained earnings, the retained earning would be debited by ($60,000)
Answer:
The correct answer is the option B: This employee should be granted access based on his current and past roles only after being formally reviewed for his effectiveness in the company.
Explanation:
To begin with, if the employee has past through several positions before then he must understand quite a bit how the company works in its whole and moreover that employee must be trusted due to the fact of the times that he was promoted and therefore that he must have granted access based on his current and past roles but only after being formally reviewed because of the fact of ensuring the effectiveness of the employee.
Answer:
Realized loss = $5000
Explanation:
The adjusted basis is the net cost of an asset after it has had depreciation deductions and/or capital expenditure increments. In other words, its actual worth at that particular point in time.
The amount realized is the fair market value and the sum of any money received at the sale of an asset.
A realized gain or loss is the difference between the amount realized from the sale of the asset and the asset's adjusted basis on the time of its sale. A positive figure proves to be a gain and a negative figure proves to be a loss. In other words, when an asset is sold for a price higher than what it is actually worth at the time of sale, it is a realized gain whilst if it is sold for a price lower than what its net cost is, it is a realized loss.
In this case,
$50,000 - $55,000 = $(5000)
There is a realized loss for Andrea of $5000 on the sale of this machinery.
Answer: The answer is as follows:
Explanation:
From these numbers, we can conclude that USA has a comparative in producing cars and France has a comparative advantage in producing bottles.
Opportunity cost shows that how many units of one good have to be foregone in order to produce one additional unit of other good.
In USA:
Opportunity cost of producing bottles = ![\frac{15000000}{20000000}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B15000000%7D%7B20000000%7D)
= 0.75
Opportunity cost of producing cars = ![\frac{20000000}{15000000}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B20000000%7D%7B15000000%7D)
= 1.33
In France:
Opportunity cost of producing bottles = ![\frac{10000000}{18000000}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B10000000%7D%7B18000000%7D)
= 0.55
Opportunity cost of producing cars = ![\frac{18000000}{10000000}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B18000000%7D%7B10000000%7D)
= 1.8
Above calculations clearly shows that USA has a lower opportunity in producing 1 unit of car as compared to the France, so it has a comparative advantage in producing cars.
Whereas, France has a lower opportunity in producing 1 unit of bottle as compared to the USA, so it has a comparative advantage in producing Bottles.