Answer:
 5.31%
Explanation:
FV = 1000
Coupon rate = 5.7%
No of compound = 2
Interest per period = $28.5
Bond price = $1048
No of years to maturity = 20
No of compounding till maturity = 40
Coupon rate set on new bonds = Rate(Nper, PMT, -PV, FV) * 2
Coupon rate set on new bonds = Rate(40, 28.5, -1048, 1000) * 2
Coupon rate set on new bonds = 0.02655 * 2
Coupon rate set on new bonds = 0.0531
Coupon rate set on new bonds = 5.31%
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Explanation  
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
a. N = 7, I/Y = 4, PV = -37,000
Explanation:
In financial calculator % is already written in the calculator so we have to write only number in calculator. 
Option b incorrect because it has included a number with % ( 4% ) sign that we dint do usually in calculator. 
Option c  is incorrect because it has taken pv as positive
Option d is incorrect because it has written 4% that we don't put in calculator as well as it has inserted positive pv which is also wrong.
 
        
             
        
        
        
Under- or Over-Applied Manufacturing Overhead:
Under- or Over-Applied Manufacturing Overhead refers to the balance in the manufacturing overhead control account after the actual overhead costs that were incurred and the applied overhead for the period has been recorded
1 .The appleid overhead is the predetermined rate of $2.40 per machine hour multiplied by the actual number of machine hours (75,000), so it is $180,000.
The applied overhead is debited to work-in-process inventory and credited to the manufacturing overhead account.
2. The underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year is the difference between the actual and applied overhead. We can show it in the T-account like this:
3. The company estimated its total overhead cost to be $192,000 and its total machine hours to be 80,000. The actual overhead cost was $184,000 and the actual machine hours were 75,000. We can see that the main reason why the manufacturing overhead was underapplied was the fact that it worked fewer machine hours than anticipated with a proportional decrease in the manufacturing overhead costs incurred. This is normal because an element of manufacturing overhead is fixed.
To know more about overhead applied manufacturing overhead: 
brainly.com/question/14703509
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