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solong [7]
3 years ago
15

9+(-4)-(-2)-(7×0)=the answer​

Mathematics
2 answers:
N76 [4]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember PEMDAS. Parentheses, exponents, multiplication & division (left to right), addition & subtraction (left to right). Also remember to switch the sign when working with negative numbers [ex. 2 - (-2) switches to 2 + 2, 2 + (-2) switches to 2 - 2), etc]

So:

9 + (-4) - (-2) - (7 × 0)

9 - 4 + 2 - 0

5 + 2

7

Crank3 years ago
3 0
<h3>- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - ~Hello There!~ - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - </h3>

➷ You need to know these rules to do this:

Two different signs next to each other, make a negative sign

Two signs that are the same, make a plus

The answer = 7

➶ Hope This Helps You!

➶ Good Luck (:

➶ Have A Great Day ^-^

↬ ʜᴀɴɴᴀʜ ♡

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A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

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3 years ago
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alekssr [168]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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How do i write k times 8 is less than 48 as an algebraic expression
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The answer is 8k < 48
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Darryl and Kayla sold pies for a school fundraiser. Darryl made $38 from 2 chocolate pies and 4 apple pies. Kayla made $138 from
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Let chocolate pie be x and apple pie be y

Darryl made $38 from 2 chocolate pies and 4 apple pies

That’s

2x + 4y = $38

Kayla made $138 from 14 chocolate pies and 12 apple pies

That’s

14x + 12y = $138

We now have two equations

Equation 1 : 2x + 4y = 38

Equation 2: 14x + 12y = 138

Multiply equation one by 12 and equation 2 by 4 to eliminate apple pie y

We have

12 x 2x + 12 x 4y = 12 x 38

4 x 14x + 4 x 12y = 4 x 138

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56x + 48y = 552

Subtract equation equation two from one

-32x = -96

Divide both sides by -32

x = -96/-32

x = 3

A chocolate pie cost $3

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