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vodomira [7]
3 years ago
10

What is scientific notation

Mathematics
2 answers:
azamat3 years ago
5 0
Scientific notation can also be called exponents

so if you want to say 8 as a scientific notation, it can also be 2 to the power of 3.

Hope this helps you.

AURORKA [14]3 years ago
3 0
Hi Dana

What i know about scientific notation is that : It is a way that scientists found to handle large numbers or small numbers.

For example : They used it especially when they're calculating something that will gave them lots of Zero(0) so instead of  writing 0.00000000000000000009 they prefer to find the easiest way to do it which is called : Scientific notation.

I hope that's help !

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A blacksmith blends one alloy of silver that is 35% silver and another that is 95% silver. To the nearest ton, how much of the a
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Answer:

Let x be the unknown quantity of 50% silver.

Look at the silver concentrations...   This will be 0.5x of actual silver,

Added to 5% silver in 500g or 0.05(500)g of actual silver

Totaling to (500+x)g of 20% silver which will have 0.2(500+x)g of silver

 

Your equation is:

 

0.5x + 0.05(500) = 0.2(500+x)

 

Solve for x to find the grams of 50% silver used

 

Step-by-step explanation:

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4 years ago
Write the trigonometric expression sin(sin−1u−tan−1v) as an algebraic expression in u and v. Assume that the variables u and v r
igomit [66]

Answer:

[u – v√(1 – u²)]/√(1 + v²)

Step-by-step explanation:

Let sin^-1(u) = A, therefore sinA = u.

We know that sin(theta) = opposite/hypothenuse

Therefore, sinA = u/1 and u is the opposite side to angle A while 1 is the hypotenuse. Draw an acute triangle placing u opposite to angle A and 1 as the hypotenuse. By Pythagoras theorem the adjacent would be √(1 – u²).

By doing this, it means cosA = adjacent/hypotenuse = √(1 – u²)/1 = √(1 – u²)

Also, let tan^-1(v) = B, therefore tanB = v.

We know that tan(theta) = opposite/adjacent

Therefore, tanB = v/1 and v is the opposite side to angle B while 1 is the adjacent. Draw an acute triangle placing v opposite to angle B and 1 as the adjacent. By Pythagoras theorem the hypothenuse would be √(1 + v²).

Therefore, sinB = opposite/hypotenuse = v/√(1 + v²) and cosB = adjacent/hypotenuse = 1/√(1 + v²)

Now,

sin[sin^–1(u) – tan^–1(v)] =

sin(A – B) =

sinAcosB – sinBcosA =

u[1/√(1 + v²)] – [v/√(1 + v²)][√(1 – u²)] =

[u/√(1 + v²)] – [v√(1 – u²)/√1 + v²)] =

[u – v√(1 – u²)]/√(1 + v²).

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