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lorasvet [3.4K]
3 years ago
15

12. Using the value of 0.538 for the proportion of those surveyed who said they exercise at least 30 minutes three or more days

a week in the most recent poll, calculate the margin
of error. How does your margin of error compare to the value reported by Gallup?
Mathematics
1 answer:
ICE Princess25 [194]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

ME=1.96\sqrt{\frac{0.538 (1-0.538)}{15235}}=0.00792    

The margin of error on this case is approximated \pm 0.792\% who is very clos to the +1% reported by the Gallup.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this previous info : "Results are based on telephone interview conducted as part of the Gallup-Healthways Well-Being Index survey June 1–30,2013, with a random sample of 15,235 adults, aged 18 and older, living in all 50 U.S. states and the District of Columbia.

For results based on the total sample of national adults, one can say with 95% confidence that the maximum margin of sampling error is ±1 percentage point."

Previous concepts

A confidence interval is "a range of values that’s likely to include a population value with a certain degree of confidence. It is often expressed a % whereby a population means lies between an upper and lower interval".  

The margin of error is the range of values below and above the sample statistic in a confidence interval.  

Normal distribution, is a "probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean, showing that data near the mean are more frequent in occurrence than data far from the mean".  

The population proportion have the following distribution

p \sim N(p,\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}})

Solution to the problem

In order to find the critical value we need to take in count that we are finding the interval for a proportion, so on this case we need to use the z distribution. Since our interval is at 95% of confidence, our significance level would be given by \alpha=1-0.95=0.05 and \alpha/2 =0.025. And the critical value would be given by:

z_{\alpha/2}=-1.96, z_{1-\alpha/2}=1.96

The estimated proportion on this case is \hat p =0.538 and n =15235, the margin of error is given by:

ME=z_{\alpha/2}\sqrt{\frac{\hat p (1-\hat p)}{n}}    (a)

And if we replace we got:

ME=1.96\sqrt{\frac{0.538 (1-0.538)}{15235}}=0.00792    

The margin of error on this case is approximated \pm 0.792\% who is very clos to the +1% reported by the Gallup.

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8/3 ÷ 2/3

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7 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
Plz help i will mark brainlest
11111nata11111 [884]

Answer:

a,b and dcbecause it equals 1

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to find something that is gonna divide by itself to get a postive number, so d wont work bc it would be 24 divided by 25

8 0
3 years ago
Calculate the equation of a straight line which x-intercept is = - 2 and y-intercept = 2
VikaD [51]

Answer:

y=-2x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

it has a positive slope

the line should point like this on the graph: picture above

7 0
2 years ago
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