Yes. That statement is true.
For example in : (1/2) divided by (3/4), you would invert 3/4 to make 4/3 and change the divide symbol to the multiply symbol. Becoming:
(1/2) multiplied by (4/3)<em> = </em><em>(1/2) divided by (3/4) = 0.66r</em>
Answer:
3609.3
Step-by-step explanation:
Yes because they as fraction would be equal parts I think
Answer:
-2 and 0
Step-by-step explanation: