If 1 pint equals 2 cups then 5 pints equals 10 cups
Because 5 times 2 equals 10. Hope this helps.
Answer:
<em>First.</em> Let us prove that the sum of three consecutive integers is divisible by 3.
Three consecutive integers can be written as k, k+1, k+2. Then, if we denote their sum as n:
n = k+(k+1)+(k+2) = 3k+3 = 3(k+1).
So, n can be written as 3 times another integer, thus n is divisible by 3.
<em>Second. </em>Let us prove that any number divisible by 3 can be written as the sum of three consecutive integers.
Assume that n is divisible by 3. The above proof suggest that we write it as
n=3(k+1)=3k+3=k + k + k +1+2 = k + (k+1) + (k+2).
As k, k+1, k+2 are three consecutive integers, we have completed our goal.
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is 2^(9/10). I did it assuming with the ^5 you mean the 5th root of 4
