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3 years ago

8

In a pair of triangles, if two pairs of corresponding sides are proportional, and the angles in between the two pairs of corresp

onding sides are congruent, then the triangles are similar.
Triangle ABC is similar to triangle MNO. Solve for the value of the missing side.

x = 1.56 cm
x = 1.44 cm
x = 2.25 cm
x = 0.64 cm

2 answers:

Anna007 [38]3 years ago

8 0

Answer: B, x = 2.25 cm

telo118 [61]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

x = 2.25

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps and have a nice day :3

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I'll assume the usual definition of set difference, $X-A=\{x\in X,x\not\in A\}$ .

Let $x\in X-(A\cup B)$ . Then $x\in X$ and $x\not\in(A\cup B)$ . If $x\not\in(A\cup B)$ , then $x\not\in A$ and $x\not\in B$ . This means $x\in X,x\not\in A$ and $x\in X,x\not\in B$ , so it follows that $x\in(X-A)\cap(X-B)$ . Hence $X-(A\cup B)\subset(X-A)\cap(X-B)$ .

Now let $x\in(X-A)\cap(X-B)$ . Then $x\in X-A$ and $x\in X-B$ . By definition of set difference, $x\in X,x\not\in A$ and $x\in X,x\not\in B$ . Since $x\not A,x\not\in B$ , we have $x\not\in(A\cup B)$ , and so $x\in X-(A\cup B)$ . Hence $(X-A)\cap(X-B)\subset X-(A\cup B)$ .

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$X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right)=\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i)$

The proof of this is the same as above, you just have to indicate that membership, of lack thereof, holds for all indices $i\in I$ .

Proof of one direction for example:

Let $x\in X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right)$ . Then $x\in X$ and $x\not\in\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i$ , which in turn means $x\not\in A_i$ for all $i\in I$ . This means $x\in X,x\not\in A_{i_1}$ , and $x\in X,x\not\in A_{i_2}$ , and so on, where $\{i_1,i_2,\ldots\}\subset I$ , for all $i\in I$ . This means $x\in X-A_{i_1}$ , and $x\in X-A_{i_2}$ , and so on, so $x\in\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i)$ . Hence $X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right)\subset\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i)$ .

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3 years ago