Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
50 dollars = ∉34
∉1 = Rs 150
Rs 382800 / 150 Rs per ∉ = 382800/150 ∉
=2552 ∉
50 dollars = ∉34 so 50/34 dollars = ∉
2552 ∉ × 50/34 dollar per ∉ = in the units the ∉ cancel out
∉ × dollar/∉ = dollars
(2552 × 50) / 34 = 3752.94 dollars <------------------
Here is another way of looking at the answer...........
Rs 382800 × 1∉/150 Rs × 50 dollars/34 ∉ = note how the units cancel
= 382800 × (1/150) × (50/34) Rs × ∉/Rs × dollars/∉
= 3,752.94 dollars leaving only dollars in the numerator
Answer:
because they have little anty bodies.
Step-by-step explanation:
i don't know
There are several ways two triangles can be congruent.
<em> congruent by SAS</em>
<em> congruent by corresponding theorem</em>
In 
and 
(see attachment), we have the following observations
--- Because O is the midpoint of line segment AD
--- Because O is the midpoint of line segment BC
---- Because vertical angles are congruent
---- Because vertical angles are congruent
Using the SAS (<em>side-angle-side</em>) postulate, we have:
Using corresponding theorem,
---- i.e. both triangles are congruent
The above congruence equation is true because:
- <em>2 sides of both triangles are congruent</em>
- <em>1 angle each of both triangles is equal</em>
- <em>Corresponding angles are equal</em>
See attachment
Read more about congruence triangles at:
brainly.com/question/20517835
The equivalent expression of a + 5 is -(-a - 5)
<h3>How to rewrite the expression?</h3>
The expression is given as:
a + 5
Multiply by 1
1 * (a + 5)
Express 1 as -1 * -1
-1 * -1 * (a + 5)
Open the bracket
-1 * (-a - 5)
This gives
-(-a - 5)
Hence, the equivalent expression of a + 5 is -(-a - 5)
Read more about equivalent expression at:
brainly.com/question/2972832
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