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NeX [460]
3 years ago
14

Use the explicit formula an = a1 + (n – 1) • d to find the 250th term of the sequence below.

Mathematics
1 answer:
solmaris [256]3 years ago
8 0
For this case we have the following equation:
 an = a1 + (n - 1) • d
 Where,
 a1 = 57
 d = 66-57 = 9
 For the term number 250 we have:
 n = 250
 Substituting the values:
 a250 = 57 + (250 - 1) * 9
 a250 = 2298
 Answer:
 
D.2298
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An article reports "sales have grown by 30% this year, to $200 million." What were sales before the growth? An article reports "
zimovet [89]

The amount of sales before growth according to the article is $153.85 million

<h3>How to find sales before growth?</h3>

let

  • Sales before growth = x
  • Percentage growth = 30%
  • New sales = $200 million

200 = x + (30% × x)

200 = x + (0.3 × x)

200 = x + 0.3x

200 = 1.3x

x = 200/1.3

x = 153.846153846153

Approximately,

x = $153.85 million

Learn more about percentage:

brainly.com/question/843074

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8 0
1 year ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
Ratio 6 to 5 of 20000
neonofarm [45]

Answer:

24000

Step-by-step explanation:

6/5×20000

=24000

4 0
1 year ago
Which expression has the same value as the one below?
9966 [12]

Which expression has the same value as the one below?

i dont kown cause i cant see the choices

7 0
2 years ago
Which is the outlier in this set of values?<br> 17 20 19 10 15 19 14 0 11 16
Musya8 [376]

Answer:

Zero is the outlier.

Step-by-step explanation:

the rest of the numbers are all two-digit numbers while zero is one digit and farther away on a number line.

hope i helped!

8 0
3 years ago
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