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jonny [76]
3 years ago
15

Sheila is climbing on a ladder that is attached against the side of a jungle gym wall. She is 4 feet off the ground and is 3 fee

t from the base of the ladder, which is 18 feet from the wall. How high up the wall is the top of the ladder?
Mathematics
1 answer:
uranmaximum [27]3 years ago
6 0
It would be 14 feet from the top of the ladder down to the bottom
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A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

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3 years ago
Using the drawing that is the vertex of angle 4
TEA [102]

A.A is your best answer

A vertex is "the apex" of the angle.

See attached photo.

hope this helps

8 0
3 years ago
9. Select all the equations that are equivalent to the equation. 3x - 4 = 5
Zolol [24]

Answer: It would be A, B, and lastly E.

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2 years ago
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There were 5 people with a Pi-Day shirt on in class with 27 not wearing such a fun
ANTONII [103]

Answer:

377

Step-by-step explanation:

5 / 32 = 59 / x

x = 377.6

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Subtract 3 hours, 50 minutes from 5 hours, 20 minutes.
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1 hour 30 mins because you add up the minutes from both individually and then subtract.
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