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3 years ago

2n − 35=5 help i have to do this for school

Mathematics

2 answers:

Andrews [41]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

$\boxed{n=20}$

Step-by-step explanation:

1. First, add by thirty-five from both sides of equation form.

$2n-35+35=5+35$

2. Then simplify by equation.

$2n=40$

3. Next, divide by two from both sides of equation form.

$\frac{2n}{2}= \frac{40}{2}$

4. And finally, simplify by equation. You can also cross out by the 2n/2 as a fraction it is. Then you divide by the two.

$40/2=20$

$40/20=2$

$20*2=40$

$2*20=40$

$\boxed{n=20}$

Hope this helps!

And thank you for posting your question at here on brainly, and have a great day.

-Charlie

yawa3891 [41]3 years ago

4 0

2n-35=5

+35 both sides

2n=40

÷2 both sides

n=20

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A CBS News/New York Times survey found that 97% of Americans believe that texting while driving should be outlawed (CBS News web

Murrr4er [49]

Answer:

a) $P(X\geq 8)=0.0317+0.228+0.737=0.9972$

b) $P(X>95) =1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: $P(A)+P(A') =1$

Part a

We want this probability:

$P(X\leq 12)$

$P(X\geq 8)=P(X=8)+P(X=9)+P(X=10)$

$P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.97)^8 (1-0.97)^{10-8}=0.03174$

$P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.97)^9 (1-0.97)^{10-9}=0.2287$

$P(X=10)=(10C10)(0.97)^{10} (1-0.97)^{10-10}=0.7374$

$P(X\geq 8)=0.0317+0.228+0.737=0.9972$

Part b

We need to check if we can use the normal approximation , the conditions are:

$np=100*0.97=97>10$ and $n(1-p)=100*(1-0.97)=3$

On this case the second condition is not satisfied, but the problem says that we can use it. So then if we apply the normal approximation to the binomial distribution in our case:

$X \sim N(\mu=97,\sigma=1.706)$