1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Tcecarenko [31]
3 years ago
15

Part a : part b: part c : part d :

Mathematics
1 answer:
ExtremeBDS [4]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

por

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
If i had a kid on october 6th and another 12 months later how old would the first kid be
zepelin [54]

Answer:

3 months old

Step-by-step explanation:

9 months for birth

and then the other 3 months is the age.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
5/7 of a number is 55<br> work out the number. <br> please help with this question
Alecsey [184]

Answer:

77

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps..

Good luck.

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If you use exactly eight cups of cauliflower to make 6 veggie burritos and if you continue to make burritos using the same recip
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

9 burritos

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use ratios to solve

8 cups         12 cups

----------   = -----------------

6 burritos     x burritos

Using cross products

8x = 6*12

8x = 72

Divide by 8

8x/8 =72/8

x = 9

9 burritos

7 0
2 years ago
Tangent Line h(t) = sec t / t @ (Pi, 1/pi)
Alex Ar [27]
Take derivitive

note
the derivitive of sec(x)=sec(x)tan(x)
so
remember the quotient rule
the derivitive of \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \frac{f'(x)g(x)-g'(x)f(x)}{(g(x))^2}
so

the derivitive of \frac{sec(t)}{t} = \frac{sec(t)tan(t)t-(1)(sec(t))}{t^2}
so now evaluate when t=pi
we get
sec(pi)=-1
tan(pi)=0
we get
\frac{(-1)(0)(pi)-(pi)(-1)}{pi^2}= \frac{pi}{pi^2}= \frac{1}{pi}
slope=1/pi

use slope point form
for
slope=m and point is (x1,y1)
equation is
y-y1=m(x-x1)
slope is 1/pi
point is (pi,1/pi)

y-1/π=1/π(x-π)
times both sides by π
πy-1=x-π
πy=x-π+1
y=(1/π)x-1+(1/π)
or, alternately
-(1/π)x+y=(1/π)-1
x-πy=π-1
7 0
3 years ago
What number is 150% of 92
Setler79 [48]
The answer is 138 because 92 * 150= 13,900 and 1*100= 100.
Then you divide 13,800 by 100 and get 138.

So the answer is 138.

Hope that helped. :) :0 :p :D :d

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • A rectangle prism has edge lengths of 3.5 inches 2.5 inches and 1.5 inches how many cubes with side lengths of 0.5 inches would
    6·1 answer
  • Factors of 1024 that sum to -64
    15·1 answer
  • If Jan had 10<br> Apples and gave 4 to him, how many apples does Jan have left?
    14·1 answer
  • Find the odds of an answer if the probability of the event is given to be 3/8
    14·1 answer
  • What is 1/2 of 3/4??
    13·1 answer
  • Instructions: Problem 3 ! Find the missing angle in the image below. Do not include spaces in your answers
    5·1 answer
  • A Game Center has a $5 admission fee and charges $0.50 for each game played. Write an equation that represents the cost, C, in d
    14·1 answer
  • Somebody help me ASAP now
    14·2 answers
  • Joe worked as a waiter at a charity banquet. He earned $17.50 for each hour worked. Joe also received a tip for this event in th
    6·1 answer
  • Suzie paid a total of \$324$324dollar sign, 324 for xxx tickets to a rock festival.
    6·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!