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grandymaker [24]
3 years ago
14

Someone please help me. ASAP

Mathematics
2 answers:
Varvara68 [4.7K]3 years ago
8 0
Answer:

6

Explanation:
Add like terms and make x alone.

I hope this helps you!!
DENIUS [597]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

x = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

we both know you dont wanna know how you just want the answer

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Suppose you have an experiment where you flip a coin three times. You then count the number of heads. a.)State the random variab
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

a) X=number of heads observed when flipped the coin 3 times

b) the probability distribution is

P(X=x) = 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])

or

P(X)=1/8 for x=0 and x=3 and P(X)=3/8 for x=1 and x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

the random variable will be X=number of heads observed when flipped the coin 3 times . Since the result from each flip is independent of the others , then X has a binomial probability distribution , such that

P(X=x)= n!/[(n-x)!*x!)*p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

where

n= number of times the coin is flipped = 3

p= probability of getting heads in a flip of the coin = 1/2 (assuming that the coin is fair)

therefore

P(X=x)= 3!/[(3-x)!*x!)*(1/2)^(3-x) * (1/2)^x = 3!/[(3-x)!*x!) * (1/2)³ = 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])

P(X=x)= 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])   , for x=[0,1,2,3]

for x=0 and x=3 → P(X)=3/4 * (1/[3!*0!)]) = 1/8

for x=1 and x=2 → P(X)=3/4 * (1/[2!*1!)]) = 3/8

we can verify that is correct since the sum of all the probabilities from x=0 to x=3 is  1/8 +  3/8+ 3/8+ 1/8 = 1

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