The experimental probability that Pedro will hit a hole in one at the golf course is 2/5. If Pedro goes golfing 40 times in a ye
ar, how many times can he expect to hit a hole in one?
2 answers:
I'm pretty sure you would need to multiply 2/5 by 40.
So, if you multiply 2/5 by 40, you need to turn 40 into a fraction with 1 being the denominator.
2/5 x 40/1 = 80/5
Since the product is an improper fraction, you would simplify it to a whole number.
80/5 = 16.
He can expect to hit it 16 times to get a hole in one.
I hope I am right and have a great day.
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