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UNO [17]
3 years ago
7

Prove the circles are similar :).

Mathematics
1 answer:
Fudgin [204]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Translate circle C 3 units towards the right and 5 units up.

Dilate this translated circle C by a factor 2.5. It will overlap (become congruent to) circle A

This is enough to prove that the two circles are similar

You might be interested in
Anusha is walking on a hiking trail at a rate of Three-fourths miles in One-fourth hour. At this rate, how far will Anusha walk
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3/4 + 3/4 + 3/4 + 3/4 = 12/4 = 3. She will walk 3 miles in an hour.

6 0
3 years ago
1.)12.5+(-31.5)=<br>2.)-31.91+(-16.7)=<br>3.)1/6+(-11/12)+2/3=<br>4.)29+(-15.7)+(-31.05)=
Xelga [282]
1. = Step 1. Simplify Brackets and you get 12.5 - 31.5 Step 2. Simplify and you get -19&#10; which is your answer.

2. = Step 1. Simplify Brackets and you get -31.91-16.7 Step 2. Simplify and you get -48.61

3. = Step 1. Simplify Brackets and you get \frac{1}{6} - \frac{11}{12} + \frac{2}{3} Step 2. Simplify and you get - \frac{1}{12}

4. Step 1. = Simplify Brackets and you get 29-15.7-31.05 Step 2. Simplify and you get -17.75
5 0
3 years ago
Which property is demonstrated in the equation 0 x 35 = 0?
Kisachek [45]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the property of zero,

multiplication property of zero

8 0
3 years ago
4. Using the geometric sum formulas, evaluate each of the following sums and express your answer in Cartesian form.
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

\sum_{n=0}^9cos(\frac{\pi n}{2})=1

\sum_{k=0}^{N-1}e^{\frac{i2\pi kk}{2}}=0

\sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{2})^n cos(\frac{\pi n}{2})=\frac{1}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

\sum_{n=0}^9cos(\frac{\pi n}{2})=\frac{1}{2}(\sum_{n=0}^9 (e^{\frac{i\pi n}{2}}+ e^{\frac{i\pi n}{2}}))

=\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1-e^{\frac{10i\pi}{2}}}{1-e^{\frac{i\pi}{2}}}+\frac{1-e^{-\frac{10i\pi}{2}}}{1-e^{-\frac{i\pi}{2}}})

=\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1+1}{1-i}+\frac{1+1}{1+i})=1

2nd

\sum_{k=0}^{N-1}e^{\frac{i2\pi kk}{2}}=\frac{1-e^{\frac{i2\pi N}{N}}}{1-e^{\frac{i2\pi}{N}}}

=\frac{1-1}{1-e^{\frac{i2\pi}{N}}}=0

3th

\sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{2})^n cos(\frac{\pi n}{2})==\frac{1}{2}(\sum_{n=0}^\infty ((\frac{e^{\frac{i\pi n}{2}}}{2})^n+ (\frac{e^{-\frac{i\pi n}{2}}}{2})^n))

=\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1-0}{1-i}+\frac{1-0}{1+i})=\frac{1}{2}

What we use?

We use that

e^{i\pi n}=cos(\pi n)+i sin(\pi n)

and

\sum_{n=0}^k r^k=\frac{1-r^{k+1}}{1-r}

6 0
3 years ago
Which equation represents each scenario
Mkey [24]

Answer:

if she question 1 spend $25 out of the $150, then you would do 150 sub 25 to get 125

Kevin has 10 signs. he's adding 5 signs, so divide 10 to 5 to get 2

Harvey has 5 in 1 minute, i would say in 2 minutes he'll have 10

Fran adds $25 to her $150 then she'll get $175.

Step-by-step explanation:

P= Parentheses  

E= Exponent      

M= Multiplication

D= Division

A= Addition

S= Subtraction

If this doesn't help then sorry , hope this helps.

4 0
2 years ago
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