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Oxana [17]
3 years ago
11

Refer to the data for Best Bagels, Inc. (BB). BB is considering moving to a capital structure that is comprised of 20% debt and

80% equity, based on market values. The debt would have an interest rate of 7%. The new funds would be used to repurchase stock. It is estimated that the increase in risk resulting from the additional leverage would cause the required rate of return on equity to rise to 14%. If this plan were carried out, what would BB's new value of operations be?
Business
1 answer:
WITCHER [35]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$498,339

Explanation:

WACC= wcrs+ wd(1 −T)rd

= (0.8)(0.14) + (0.2)(0.07)(1 −0.4)

= 0.1204

= 12.04%

V= FCF/WACC

g = 0

FCF = NOPAT

= EBIT(1 −T)

V= $100,000(1 −0.4)/0.1204

= $498,338.87

Approximately $498,339.

Therefore If this plan were carried out, what would BB's new value of operations will be $498,339

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Distinguish between the substitution and income effects of a price change. If a good’s price increases does each effect have a p
vesna_86 [32]
The economics concepts of income effect and substitution effect express changes in the market and how these changes impact consumption patterns for consumer goods and services. The income effect expresses the impact of increased purchasing power on consumption, while the substitution effect describes how consumption is impacted by changing relative prices. Different goods and services experience these changes in different ways. Some products, called inferior goods, generally decrease in consumption whenever incomes increase. Consumer spending and consumption of normal goods typically increases with higher purchasing power, in contrast with inferior goods.



Read more: What's the difference between the income effect and the substitution effect? | Investopedia http://www.investopedia.com/ask/answers/041415/whats-difference-between-income-effect-and-substitution-effect.asp#ixzz4wcsy3IOK
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7 0
3 years ago
Pacific Packaging's ROE last year was only 3%, but its management has developed a new operating plan that calls for a debt-to-ca
777dan777 [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

Total asset turnover = Sales/total assets

3.2= 14000000/Total assets

Total assets = 4375000

E/A = 1-D/A = 1-0.45 = 0.55

Equity = E/A*assets = 0.55*4375000=2406250

Net income = (EBIT-interest)*(1-tax rate)

=(1344000-546000)*(1-0.25)=598500

ROE = Net income/total equity

ROE% = 598500/2406250=0.248

ROE% = 24.8

6 0
2 years ago
Income Statement Imaging Services was organized on March 1, 2018. A summary of the revenue and expense transactions for March fo
IrinaVladis [17]

Answer:

Total Expense:      $ 347,000

Income:    $ 135,000

Explanation:

<u><em>Income Statement Imaging Services </em></u>

<u><em>For the Month Ended March 31, 2018</em></u>

Fees earned                                                                          $482,000

Wages expense                                      $ 300,000

Rent expense                                                $41,500

Supplies expense                                           $3,600

Miscellaneous expense                                   $1,900          

Total Expenses                                                                         $ 347,000

Income                                                                                       $ 135,000 Wages, rent , supplies and miscellaneous expenses are totaled and deducted from the fees earned. Fee earned is the revenue and the expenses are deducted from it. By deducting expenses from revenue we get the income.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If import restrictions remain in effect after an infant industry becomes competitive in the domestic​ market, consumers in this
sertanlavr [38]

Answer: higher than

Explanation: The stockholders of companies in the infant industry gain when they are protected from world competition

-Consumes in that country will therefore pay a price higher than the world price.

8 0
2 years ago
Consider the closed (no exports or imports) Latverian economy in which the consumption function is C = 300 + 0.75DI (where DI =
777dan777 [17]

Answer:

0.66

Explanation:

Marginal propensity to consume is the proportion of disposable income that is spent on consumption

Marginal propensity to consume = change in consumption / change in income = C / Y

Gross domestic product (Y) is the sum of all final goods and services produced in an economy within a given period which is usually a year.

In a closed economy, GDP = Consumption + Investment spending + Government Spending

Y = 300 + 0.75(Y - $1,200) + $900 + $1,300

Y = 300 + 0.75Y - $900 + $900 + $1,300

Collect like terms

Y - 0.75Y = $1600

0.25Y = $1600

Y = $6400

Substitute for Y in the consumption function : 300 + 0.75(Y - $1,200)

300 + 0.75($6400 - $1,200)

300 + 0.75($5,200) = $4,200

C = $4200

Marginal propensity to consume = $4,200 / $6400 = 0.66

4 0
3 years ago
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