FDI , Foreign direct investment
I think the answer is convergent plate boundaries, but I am not positive. hope this helps :)
Answer:
Testerman Construction Co.
Internal rate of return method in analyzing capital expenditure:
Present value of expenditure = $149,630
Present of cash inflows annuity = $149,630 (using 20% discount rate and present value annuity factor of 3.3251 x $45,000)
NPV = $0 (PV of cash outflow - PV of cash inflow)
Therefore, the IRR = 20%
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Investment cost = $149,630
Annual net cash flows = $45,000
Investment period = 6 years
Annuity of future cash flows = 3.3251
b) Testerman’s IRR (Internal Rate of Return) is a capital budgeting and analysis tool which determines the discount rate that makes the present value of future inflows equal to the present value of outflows from a project. This IRR helps the managers to determine the projects that add value and are worth undertaking. IRR is based on assumptions. Similar projects with the same IRR will differ in returns due to the differences in timing and the size of the cash, the amount of debts and equity used to generate the returns, and the assumption of a constant reinvestment may which IRR makes.
Answer:
310,588.5
Explanation:
As is not said we can assume the 2,100 each year to be paid at the end of the year, and the 7% to be used as a compunded anually rate. So let´s first think just about the 2,100, as they are regulary payments, they can be seen as an anuity inmediate, the formula is as follows:
where sn is the future value of the regular payments, i is the interest rate and n is the number of payments and p is the amount of regular payment so in this particular case we have:
=198,367.65
So now let´s think on the gift of 29,000 as it is paid on 10 years, there will remain 20 years with an investment rate of 7% compounded anually. so there we have the classic formula of future value
where FV is the future value, PV is the present value, i is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods. Again in this particular case we have:
so the total amont will be:
total=198,367.65+112,220.85
total=310,588.5
Answer:
The correct answer is option d.
Explanation:
The total economic costs include both explicit as well as implicit costs. The explicit costs are the direct costs incurred and the implicit costs are opportunity costs.
An increase in the opportunity cost will cause the total economic costs to increase. The net benefit is the difference between the total revenue earned and the total cost incurred. An increase in the opportunity cost will cause a net benefit to decrease as total costs will increase.
