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tester [92]
4 years ago
9

6. Asset 1 has an expected mean return of µ1 =9%, standard deviation of its return is σ1 = 6%. Asset 2 has an expected mean retu

rn of µ2 = 14%, with a standard deviation of σ2 = 11%. The correlation coefficient between returns on these two assets is rho1,2 = −1. If you invest all your financial wealth on a portfolio holding only these two assets such that w1 + w2 = 1. How should you choose weights w1and w2 such that the portfolio is risk free (i.e., σp = 0)? In that scenario, what is your expected return on that portfolio, E (rp)?
Business
1 answer:
Paraphin [41]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Weight w1 = 0.65

Weight w2 = 0.35

Expected return =10.75%

Explanation:

w1 + w2 = 1 ........... (1)

w1 = SD of asset 2/(SD of asset 1 + SD of asset 2)

w1 = 11 ÷ (6 + 11) ⇒ 0.65

∴ w2 = 1 - w1 ⇒ 1 - 0.65

w2 = 0.35

Expected return = Weighted average

[0.65 × 9] + [0.35 × 14] ⇒ 10.75%

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On January 15, the end of the first biweekly pay period of the year, North Company’s payroll register showed that its employees
mojhsa [17]

Answer:

Cr. FICA- Social security taxes payable: 2,480

Cr. FICA- Medicare taxes payable: 508

Cr. fed. inc. taxes payable: 2,000

Cr. Employment medical insurance payable: 1,108

Cr. Employee union dues payable: 240

Cr. Salaries Payable: 33,664

Explanation:

Journal entry

Dr. Sales salaries expense: 40,000

Cr. FICA- Social security taxes payable: (40,000×6.2%) 2,480

Cr. FICA- Medicare taxes payable: (40,000×1.45%) 508

Cr. fed. inc. taxes payable: 2,000

Cr. Employment medical insurance payable: 1,108

Cr. Employee union dues payable: 240

Cr. Salaries Payable: 33,664

Salaries Payable

2,480+508+2,000+1,108+240=6,336

40,000-6,336= 33,664

4 0
3 years ago
Investments and loans base their interest calculations on one of two possible methods: the the interest and interest methods. Bo
Ghella [55]

Answer:

  • Compound Interest ⇒ FV = PV x (1 + I ) ^N
  • Simple Interest ⇒ FV = PV x I x N

Explanation:

With compound interest the rate of growth needs to be compounded which is why the time period is used to exponentially adjust it.

With simple interest there is no compounding so the value is simply the interest that will be earned every period (which is a constant value) multiplied by the number of periods and the amount to be invested.

3 0
3 years ago
Question 4
SashulF [63]

1. The calculated capital budgeting techniques yielded the following results:

A. Accounting Rate of Return (AROR) is <u>28%</u>.

B. Payback Period Technique (PBP) is <u>5 years</u>.

C. Net Present Value Technique (NPV) is <u>RM33,588</u>.

D. Profitability Index (PI) is <u>1.056</u>.

2. The project should be accepted based on the positive results above.

3. The importance of capital budgeting techniques lies in the fact that they aid capital decision-making by measuring their probable outcomes.

<h3>What are capital budgeting techniques?</h3>

Capital budgeting techniques are capital investment evaluation tools.

Some of the capital budget tools include the Payback Period, Discounted Payment Period, Net Present Value, Profitability Index, Internal Rate of Return, and Modified Internal Rate of Return.

These capital budgeting techniques help management to evaluate capital projects and to choose investment strategies.

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

Investment cost = RM600,000

Cost of capital = 12%

            Net Cash Flows      PV Factor     Present Value

Year 0     RM600,000               1              (RM600,000)

Year 1       RM100,000           0.893                  89,300

Year 2            110,000            0.797                  87,670

Year 3            121,000            0.712                   86,152

Year 4            133,100            0.636                 84,652

Year 5            146,410            0.567                  83,014

Year 6    RM400,000            0.507              202,800

Present value of cash flows =                 RM633,588

Net Present Value                                      RM33,588

Total Net Cash Flows = RM1,010,510

Average Net Cash flows = RM168,418 (RM1,010,510/6)

Accounting Rate of Return = Average Income/Initial Cost

= 28% (RM168,418/RM600,000 x 100)

Payback period = 5 years

NPV = Initial Investment - PV of net cash flows

= RM33,588

Profitability Index = Present value of cash flows/Initial Cost

= 1.056 (RM633,588/RM600,000)

Learn more about capital budgeting techniques at brainly.com/question/17159659

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
Real GDP​ ______. A. accurately measures leisure time and life expectancy comma but does not accurately measure the general heal
professor190 [17]

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Real GDP measure total economic output by an economy in a specific geographical boundary regardless of ownership of factors of production, within a year, ceteris paribus.

Real GDP is a good indicator but is not a perfect indicator as underground economy (private tuition whereby taxes and consumption of goods and services) are not accounted for.

Real GDP does not measure Non-Material standard of living like leisure hours, health and life expectancy... It needs other indicators.

Both B and D is a bit effy as:

For D, GDP does not even measure such Non-Material SOL

For B, GDP is not 100 percent accurate on measuring household production (local production? I believe there is no such phrasing as household production as by economics, household is involved in household spending, Contributing to Consumption expenditure in Aggregate Demand.) as there are other factors like presence of underground economy that is not accounted for.

However, B seems like the most accurate ans as it still measures national output.

5 0
3 years ago
During December, Far West Services makes a $2,200 credit sale. The state sales tax rate is 6% and the local sales tax rate is 2.
klasskru [66]

Answer:

This long of a question for onmly 10 points? But ill answe rit anyway. 48000299 the 200

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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