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sammy [17]
3 years ago
8

Leahy Corp. sells $300,000 of bonds to private investors. The bonds are due in five years, have an 6% coupon rate, and interest

is paid semiannually. The bonds were sold to yield 4%. What proceeds does Leahy receive from the investors (exclude any issuance costs/fees paid to bankers) (hint: refresh your bond pricing knowledge from managerial finance)? Question 10 options: a) $274,345 b) $300,000 c) $299,999 d) $326,948
Business
1 answer:
Damm [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$326,948 ,

Explanation:

The computation of the proceeds leahy received from the investors is shown below:

Present value of the bonds = Stated semi-annual interest x PVIFA 4%, 10 years + Maturity amount x PVIF 4%, 10 years

= ($300,000 × 6% ÷ 2) ×  8.98258 + $300,000 x 0.820348

= $326,948

Refer to the PVIFA table and PVIF table

Moreover in the semi annual, the rate of interest is half and the time period is doubles

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Karen makes $10 per hour and is paid time and
lozanna [386]

Answer:

B.$520

Explanation:

52 x 10

=520

5 0
3 years ago
. A firm begins the year with a Book Value of $10 million. During the year it generates $5 million in net profits. It paid $1 mi
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

b) $12 million

Explanation:

The new Book Value of the firm at the bigining of next year is $12 million.

In the calulation of Net Pfofit, Interst on loan has already been deducted, so deducting it from the total calculation will be wrong.

hence, only dividend paid will be removed from the addition of the Book Value anf the Net profit.

Closing balance = Opening Book Value + Net Profit - Dividend Paid

Note - The Net Profit is already ne of interest on loan.

Closing balance = $10 + $5 - $3

Closing balance is $12

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose the following information is available for Callaway Golf Company for the years 2022 and 2021. (Dollars are in thousands,
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

                                                                     2022         2021

EPS                                                                 $1.12         $0.99

Explanation:

EPS = NET INCOME / no of shares outstanding

       = $75801000/68000000 =1.12 (2022)

       = $68855000/ 69820000= 0.99 (2021)

3 0
3 years ago
On May 15, 2000 you enter into a 1-year forward rate agreement (FRA) with a bank for the period starting November 15, 2000 to Ma
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

a.

3.51%

b.

0%

Explanation:

a.

First, we need to calculate the YTM of 6 months zero-coupon bond by using the following formula

Price = Face value / ( 1 + YTM )^numbers of years

96.79 = 100 / ( 1 + YTM )^1

1 + YTM = 100 / 96.79

1 + YTM = 1.0331646

Now calculate the YTM of 1 Year zero-coupon bond

93.51 = 100 / ( 1 + YTM )^1

YTM = 1.0331646 - 1

YTM = 0.0331646

YTM = 3.31646%

YTM = 3.316%

1 + YTM = 100 / 93.51

1 + YTM = 1.06940

YTM = 1.06940 - 1

YTM = 0.06940

YTM = 6.940%

YTM = 6.94%

Hence the forward rate is calculated as follow

Forward rate = [ (1 + YTM of 1 year zero coupon bond ) / ( 1 + YTM of 6 months year zero coupon bond ) ] - 1 = ( 1 + 6.94% ) / ( 1 + 3.316% ) = [ 1.0694 / 1.03316 ] - 1 = 1.03508 - 1 = 0.03508 = 3.508% = 3.51%

b.

At the time of inception the formward rate is 0.

7 0
2 years ago
Which of the following statements regarding quality-control inspections is true? a.Inspection requires product tear down. b.Insp
Nimfa-mama [501]

Answer: The answer is C. Inspection requires both product tear down and product reassembly.

Explanation: The aim of quality-control inspections is to ascertain whether a product has been made according to specifications, and whether there are any defects in the products.

Therefore quality-control inspections will involve product tear down, in order to check the component parts of a product for quality assurance, and product reassembly is carried out after the product tear down to reassemble the products if it is discovered that it meets quality standard.

4 0
2 years ago
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