Answer:
$685,000
Explanation:
First and foremost, the formula for determining the contribution margin ratio can be used to determine the target dollars sales as shown below:
contribution margin ratio=contibution margin/sales revenue
contribution margin ratio=16%
contribution margin required=pretax income+fixed costs
contribution margin required=$71,200+$38,400=$109,600
16%=$109,600/sales revenue
16%*sales revenue=$109,600
sales revenue=$109,600/16%
sales revenue=$685,000
When a firm's customers make investments in order to use its particular product or service, the customers incur switching costs if they purchase another firm's products or services instead. Therefore, the option B holds true.
<h3>What is the significance of switching costs?</h3>
The switching costs can be referred to or considered as the costs incurred by the customers of a product or a service when they use the alternatives or the competitive products available in the market, instead of the product they were using earlier.
Therefore, the option B holds true and states regarding the significance of the switching costs.
Learn more about switching costs here:
brainly.com/question/14728758
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When a firm's customers make investments in order to use its particular product or service, the customers incur which type of costs if they purchase another firm's products or services instead?
A. Acquisition costs
B. Switching costs
C. Alternative costs
D. Replacement costs
Answer:
the post money valuation of the company is $1,750,000
Explanation:
The computation of the post money valuation is shown below:
Given that
Value of 400,000 shares is $1 million.
So,
The Value of 1 share is
= $1 million ÷ 400,000
= $2.5
And,
Total number of shares is
= 400,000 + 200,000 + 100,000
= 700,000
Now
Total value of shares is
= $2.5 × 700,000
= $1,750,000
hence, the post money valuation of the company is $1,750,000
Each unit sells: $80
Each unit costs to make: $32
Fixed costs: 72,000
Goal: 2,000 units sold
If they meet their goal, let's see how that would go:
(2,000 * 80) - (2,000 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
160,000 - 64,000 - 72,000 = 24,000
24,000 is the profit they would make for hitting their goal.
Question 1:
What is the break-even point? The break-even means they make no money, but they also lose no money. So that final number (24,000) would be 0 instead. How many units would they have to make to hit zero?
(x * 80) - (x * 32) - 72,000 = 0.
80x - 32x = 72,000
48x = 72,000
x = 1500 units
We can verify by using our first formula we've already determined, using this new value for units.
(1,500* 80) - (1,500 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
120,000 - 48,000 - 72,000 = 0? True!
Question 2: If they increase their expenses by 16,000, what is their new break even point?
(x * 80) - (x * 32) - 72,000 - 16000 = 0.
80x - 32x - 88000 = 0
48x = 88000
x = 1833
Question 3: 10% reduction in selling price and 10% increase in sales. (Assuming based off the original formula the problem provided.)
Original: (2,000 * 80) - (2,000 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
10% Reduction in price: 8
80-8 = 72
10% increase in sales: 200
2000 + 200 = 2200
Plugin to our formula:
(2200 * 72) - (2200 * 32) - 72,000 = ?
158400 - 70400 - 72,000 = 16,000
Since this number is positive, this is income. (D)