All categories

3 years ago

..............................................

Mathematics

1 answer:

miss Akunina [59]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

-10

Step-by-step explanation:

So it skipped labeling a marker as a number between 10 and 2. The difference between 10 and 2 is 10-2=8.

Half of 8 is 4. So it is going down by 4 each time.

So start at the marker called 10.

The next marker would be 10-4=6.

The next labeled marked is 2 which would do get 2 from doing 6-4=2.

The next one below 2 would be 2-4=-2.

The next one below that one would be -2-4=-6.

The ? would be -6-4=-10.

I also provided a drawing.

You might be interested in

A pennant is a shape of a triangle has a base of 12 inches and a height of 30 inches. What the area of the pennant?

Korolek [52]

Answer:

180 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Area, A is given by A=0.5bh where b is base and h is height. Since both of these dimensions are provided then we substitute the given figures into the formula. Substituting 12 inches for base, b and 30 inches for height, h then the area will be equivalent to

A=0.5*12*30=180 square inches.

Therefore, the area of the described triangle is 180 square inches.

6 0

3 years ago

10. The length of the radius of a bicycle wheel is 14 inches. Which of the following is closest to the circumference of the whee

Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

87.92

Step-by-step explanation:

you have your radius 14 inches to get the answer is

1: pie is 3.14

2: circumference is 2× 3.14×14

3: 3.14×14

4: 43.96 × 2

5 0

3 years ago

17. New Schools expects an EBIT of $100,000 every year forever. The firm currently has no debt, and its cost of equity is 10 per

Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

$880,000

Step-by-step explanation:

First note that the full meaning of EBIT is earning before interest and tax.

When the company does not have debt, it called unlevered (VU), while a company that has debt is called levered (VL) company. The VU and the VL of the company can be calculated using the VU and VL formula as follows:

Step 1. Calculation of VU

VU = [EBIT × (1 - tax rate)] ÷ cost of equity

= [$100,000 × (1 - 0.20)] ÷ 0.10

= [$100,000 × 0.80] ÷ 0.10

= $80,000 ÷ 0.10

= $800,000

Step 2. Calculation of VL

VL = VBC + (tax rate × conversion rate × VU)

= $800,000 + (0.20 × 0.5 × $800,000)

= $800,00 + $80,000

= $880,000

Therefore, the value of the firm will be $880,000 if it is converted to 50 percent debt.

3 0

3 years ago

Please solve. v/7 = 8

Naya [18.7K]

Answer:

V=56

Step-by-step explanation:

times both sides by 7

3 0

3 years ago

Easy Sample Ap graphing 50pts! (Easy points!!) (ASAP) (URGENT) (Please check my other questions) Please

snow_lady [41]

Answer:

a) See attachment 1.

b) t² and D

c) See attachment 2.

d) g = 9.8 m/s² (1 d.p.)

Step-by-step explanation:

See attachment 1. The line of best fit is shown in red.

The quantities the student should graph in order to produce a <u>linear relationship</u> between the two quantities are t² and D.

Make a table of values of t² and D:

$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|l|l|}\cline{1-6} \rm t^2& 0.0196& 0.1024& 0.2116 & 0.3481& 0.3969\\\cline{1-6} \rm D & 0.10 & 0.50& 1.00 & 1.70 & 2.00\\\cline{1-6}\end{array}$

<u>Plot</u> a graph of D against t² and draw a line of best fit (see attachment 2).

From inspection of the graph, the line of best fit passes through the origin (0, 0) and (0.1024, 5.0). Therefore, use these two points to find the slope of the line:

$\textsf{slope}\:(m)=\dfrac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}=\dfrac{0.5-0}{0.1024-0}=4.8828125...\:\rm m/s^2$

Therefore:

$\rm \implies \dfrac{1}{2}g=4.8828125...\:\rm m/s^2$

$\rm \implies g=2 \cdot 4.8828125...\:\rm m/s^2$

$\rm \implies g=9.8\:\rm m/s^2\:(1\:d.p.)$

5 0

1 year ago