Answer:
shipment consolidation
Explanation:
The primary aim of the consolidation of shipments is to evaluate cost control and cost control. The aggregation of shipments allows individuals or businesses to save costs thereby integrating several products from different shippers into one shipment.
Therefore in the given case, since the company wants to combine 10 to 12 different orders into one shipment so that the company could save the cost
Hence, the shipment consolidation is correct
Debit cards have replaced check writing in many ways. This is because debit cards, like checks, will take the money directly from your bank account. Unlike credit cards, you must have the money in your account for you to use your debit card. Credit cards allow you to "borrow" money and pay it back later.
Your answer would be, If the Marginal Product of labor increases/rises, The Marginal Cost of Output FALLS.
If the Marginal Product of labor Falls, The Marginal Cost of Output RISES.
Hope that helps!!!
Answer:
Casey's opportunity cost of producing 1 kg of potatoes is 5 kg of steak.
Casey's opportunity cost of producing 1 kg of steak is 0.2 kg of potatoes.
Rick's opportunity cost of producing 1 kg of potatoes is 3 kg of steak.
Rick's opportunity cost of producing 1 kg of steak is 0.33 kg of potatoes.
Casey should produce steak while Rick should produce potatoes, since Rick has a comparative advantage in producing potatoes (lower opportunity cost) and Casey has a comparative advantage in producing steak.
As long as the price of steak per kilogram of potatoes is less than 5 kg of steak and more than 3 kg of steak, then both would win. In order for both of them to win is a similarly proportional way, the exchange price should be 4 kg of steak per kg of potatoes.
Answer:
Instructions are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Susan:
Annual deposit= $5,000 for 10 years
Lumo-sum for 30 years
Interest rate= 8.5%
Jane:
Annual deposit= $5,000 for 30 years.
<u>First, we will calculate the future value of Susan:</u>
<u></u>
First 10 years:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {5,000*[(1.085^10)-1]}/0.085
FV= $74,175.50
Last 30 years:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 74,175.50*(1.085^30)
FV= $857,050.14
<u>Jane:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {5,000*[(1.085^30)-1]}/0.085
FV= $621,073.63
<u>Earnings difference= 857,050.14 - 621,073.63= $235,976.51 in favor of Susan.</u>