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Alik [6]
3 years ago
13

An investor who has a margin account with his brokerage firm buys 100 shares of Quick Flip Inc. Later that day, the investor sel

ls 100 shares of Quick Flip Inc. Without other holdings in Quick Flip Inc, would this sequence of transactions be considered a day trade?
Business
1 answer:
Hoochie [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Yes  this sequence of transaction is considered as a day trade.

Explanation:

As per the definition of the day trading, <em>Day trading is defined as the purchase and sale of a security within a single trading day. It can occur in any marketplace but is most common in the foreign exchange (forex) and stock markets.</em>

As per this definition, the trading has to be done such that the purchase and sale is made on the same day. As indicated in the question ,this is the case so the given sequence of transactions is a day trade.

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The idea that only the government can organize economic activity in a way that promotes economic well-being fora country as a wh
Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

The correct option is b

amounts to a denial of one of the basic principles regarding interactions among people.

Explanation:

That will greatly affect the economy if Government only organise economic activities, it will denial the basic principles regarding the interaction among the people. Therefore option b is the right option.

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that you only have liability and comprehensive car insurance and you allow your roommate (who doesn't have car insurance
Ludmilka [50]
A. Your insurance policy will likely not cover the damages to your car.
7 0
3 years ago
Schnusenberg Corporation just paid a dividend of D0 = $0.75 per share, and that dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate
olga_2 [115]

Answer:

Option E is correct

Price of share = $31.95

Explanation:

The price of the share is the future dividend  discounted at the required rate of return .

The required rate of return is the cost of equity . The cost of equity is computed as follows:

Cost of equity = Rf + β(Rm-Rf)

Rf= 4.50, Rm= 10.50, β= 0,75

Ke= 4.50% + 0.75×(10.50-4.50)

Ke= 9%

Price of share = Do×(1+g)/(Ke-g)

Price of the share = 0.75 × (1.065)/(0.09-0.065)

                             = 31.95

Price of share = $31.95

7 0
3 years ago
An economy is operating with output $300 billion above its natural level, and fiscal policymakers want to close this expansionar
topjm [15]

Answer:

$120 billion

Explanation:

Economy operating at $300 billion above its natural level of output.

Marginal propensity to consume, MPC = 3/5 = 0.6

For closing this expansionary gap, the government have to decrease its spending by the amount calculated as follows:

Spending multiplier:

= 1/ (1 - MPC)

= 1/ (1 - 0.6)

= 1/ 0.4

= 2.5

Hence, the government spending reduces by

= Expansionary gap ÷ Spending multiplier

= $300 ÷ 2.5

= $120 billion

4 0
3 years ago
If the internal rate of return is used as the discount rate in the net present value calcula-tion, the net present value will be
bezimeni [28]

If the internal rate of return is used as the discount rate in the net present value calculations, the net present value will be  equal to zero. The internal rate of return (IRR) is a financial analysis metric used to estimate the profitability of potential investments.

The IRR calculations use the same formula as NPV calculations. Keep in mind that the IRR is not the project's actual the dollar value. The annual return is what brings the NPV to zero. The IRR is calculated in the same way as net present value (NPV), except that it sets NPV to zero.

To learn more about value, click here.

brainly.com/question/1578158

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
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